Obviously, if you can't locate your ex, you can't ask/demand/force anything at all.
If the property rightfully belongs to the spouse, then yes they can sell it. If they do not rightfully own the property, then they cannot legally sell the personal property.
Depending on the type of property, a person has a year and a day to get it in this area.
In Colorado, a surviving spouse is entitled to an "elective share" of the deceased spouse's estate, which is typically one-third of the estate. If the deceased spouse's will does not provide for the surviving spouse, they can choose to receive the elective share instead. Colorado also has laws that protect a surviving spouse's rights to the marital home and certain personal property.
No, but laws in each state differ. A property can be titled for one spouse and not the other. It's best to check with a title company in the state where the property is located. Sometimes, the spouse that has no interest in the property will have to sign a form stating stating this.
If a taxpayer died before filing a return for 2012, the taxpayer's spouse or personal representative may have to file and sign a return for that taxpayer. A personal representative can be an executor, administrator, or anyone who is in charge of the deceased taxpayer's property. If the deceased taxpayer did not have to file a return but had tax withheld, a return must be filed to get a refund. The person who files the return must enter Deceased, the deceased taxpayer's name, and the date of death across the top of the return. If this information is not provided, it may delay the processing of the return.
The spouse is not responsible for his/her spouse's child(ren). However, the State can and will intercept tax refunds and place liens on personal and real property to collect unpaid support, even if those assets are jointly held.
Not unless your spouse is on the title to the property. If not and your spouse signs, then your spouse will be fully responsible for paying the mortgage.Not unless your spouse is on the title to the property. If not and your spouse signs, then your spouse will be fully responsible for paying the mortgage.Not unless your spouse is on the title to the property. If not and your spouse signs, then your spouse will be fully responsible for paying the mortgage.Not unless your spouse is on the title to the property. If not and your spouse signs, then your spouse will be fully responsible for paying the mortgage.
I don't know the law in the US but I am sure that the mother of a deceased person could NEVER sell the property of his spouse (widow?) or even the deceased's property as the spouse (widow) would be next of kin and even if there was not a will the law has rules about this kind of thing Lock the woman out.
It depends on the laws in the state where the property is located. YOu should consult with a attorney who specializes in family law.
Washington State is a community property state, in most instances a surviving spouse is responsible for the deceased spouse's debts depending upon the nature of the debt and how the deceased's estate is handled under state probate laws.
yes
Yes is the strict answer, but in a divorce the gloves come off and the strict terms of the Texas Family Code come into play, even if some property is in one name. The law states: "Each spouse has the sole management, control, and disposition of that spouse's separate property. Except as otherwise stated in the Texas Family Code, a spouse's separate property consists of: (1) the property owned or claimed by the spouse before marriage; (2) the property acquired by the spouse during marriage by gift, devise, or descent; and (3) the recovery for personal injuries sustained by the spouse during marriage, except any recovery for loss of earning capacity during marriage. Community property consists of the property, other than separate property, acquired by either spouse during marriage. Property possessed by either spouse during or on dissolution of marriage is presumed to be community property. The degree of proof necessary to establish that property is separate property is clear and convincing evidence." -From Sections 3.001 through 3.101 of the Texas Family Code.