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How much should companies be willing to do to correct historical inequalities?
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
First, correction/clarification of grammar is in order.
"Historical inequalities" could be construed as differences that have been corrected but are not in effect (as such "in the past"). Alternately the term could reference ongoing inequalities that have existed for quite a while. Lastly the term could refer to data histories that do not match.
As for this question there is no object that has been defined as the being an "inequality" so a definitive answer on a particular topic is indeterminate. One could extrapolate that the object is related to "social justice between ethnic. religious, gender, or sexual groups". In any event there is no way to establish what a company should be forced, let alone be willing, to do in this sphere if the "inequality" is not illegal (such a clear age / sex / religious discrimination) - that is effectively legislation of morality. "Hate Crimes" legislation is a form of such absurd regulation - anyone with common sense can see that ANY CRIME is a "hate crime"; one person takes another's possessions or even life because he hates that the other person has "more" of something - anything - than him.
Given the likelihood of the "social"slant, the answer the offended party wants to hear is "EVERYTHING", though in reality the answer must be "NOTHING" or the company will become insolvent in trying to right any wrong that is perceived to have been committed.
Unfortunately, the poor grammar of this query leaves all who read it a bit less intelligent.
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
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