Depends on if the loan is actually secured by a Deed of trust (which has become much more popular) or by an actual mortgage.
The bankruptcy stay prevents any action by the lender until the BK is finalized. Be advised that a mortgage lender can petition the court to have said stay lifted so foreclosure proceedings can continue. That rarely happens though. Unless the debtor reaches an agreement with the mortgage holder to reafirm the lending agreement the foreclosure will likely occur after the BK discharge.
If you signed a reaffirmation agreement in bankruptcy, but the court discharged that agreement, the lender will come to take the car. This will occur even if you're currently up to date.
A lis pendens will remain against the property which it was filed against until the lawsuit which the lis pendens warned of has concluded. At that time, the lis pendens will no longer encumber the property.
The filing will delay the foreclosure or reposession for a bit. But, presuming there are secured loans to the items you mention, they will need to be satisfied (paid) in the course of the bankruptcy, or those actions would still occur.
Social Security Disability is, of course, a payment from a federal agency. While there is no rule specifically on Social Security Disability, the general rule is that any funds received from a federal agency by fraud (in a petition filed on or after October 17, 2005) cannot be discharged. If the overpayment did not occur because of fraud, it will be discharged. In order to prove fraud, the SSA must show, in the bankruptcy court, that the overpayments were due to fraud. This answer does not constitute legal advice or create an attorney-client relationship. Please consult an attorney for advice on your particular facts and case.
3 years after first delinquency
NO collection activity may occur legally during bankruptcy proceedings.
bankruptcy
Bankruptcy.
bankruptcy
You could be a defaulter if you have nooney in t6he bank and issue cheques.
No. A lender can foreclose only if you default on your mortgage payments. There are probably tens of thousands of homeowners who are making their mortgage payments on time even though their property has decreased in value. If there is no default there can be no foreclosure. I respectfully disagree. Okay it must be noted that we do not know the details in the lender's agreement with the signatory. Therefore it is possible for a lender to initiate foreclose based on something within the agreement something in the contract that has been violated. A foreclosure can in theory occur if you are making your payments because often times that is not the sole condition in the lender's agreement.