Yes - the paperwork includes a form which states something along the lines of "the borrowers understand that they are each responsible for the full amount of the loan". This is why you should never cosign loans with anyone unless you're 100% sure you can afford to make the payment if they fail to do so.
Yes, the husband can rent the house if he has the Mortgage in his name but the Deed of Trust is shared.
no, it is illegal both on the house - both have to sign one can sign a quick claim deed and then the other can refi the house? no, it is illegal both on the house - both have to sign one can sign a quick claim deed and then the other can refi the house?
no! i say call the police and say to him what happend
All the owners of the property will be required to sign the mortgage so that in the case of a foreclosure the lender can take possession of the property. If only one owner signs the bank cannot foreclose on the other owner's interest.All the owners of the property will be required to sign the mortgage so that in the case of a foreclosure the lender can take possession of the property. If only one owner signs the bank cannot foreclose on the other owner's interest.All the owners of the property will be required to sign the mortgage so that in the case of a foreclosure the lender can take possession of the property. If only one owner signs the bank cannot foreclose on the other owner's interest.All the owners of the property will be required to sign the mortgage so that in the case of a foreclosure the lender can take possession of the property. If only one owner signs the bank cannot foreclose on the other owner's interest.
Yes you can. But when you refinance your 2nd mortgage you have to inform your 1st lender and 2nd lender both.
The lender will want both of the owners to sign the mortgage so that in the case of a default it can take possession of the property. Generally, when only one owner signs a mortgage the lender can only foreclose on that person's interest.
Someone made a big mistake when they gave only the wife a mortgage. The lender can foreclose on only her half interest in the property, not the husband's interest. The lender's interest will then depend upon how the couple held title. Depending on the state where the property is located a tenancy by the entirety would create the most difficult stuation for the lender. You should speak with an attorney to determine the status of that mortgage and your rights in your particular state.
It is not compulsory in the UK.
A cosigner signs the debt agreement and the lender can demand payment from both the debtor and the cosigner. A guarantor does not sign and the lender needs to go through the debtor before demanding payment from a guarantor.
No, because it is both of your homes.
Their are various signs that you can notice. Major one is the decrease in the time he used to spend with you contacting you.
Yes, the husband can rent the house if he has the Mortgage in his name but the Deed of Trust is shared.
A lender would require that all the owners of the property execute the mortgage. If only one person signs the mortgage and it is later foreclosed, the lender would only get that person't interest. Lender would want ALL the interest conveyed in the mortgage deed.
“husband and wife live together but file separately. both are itemizing deductions. husband pays mortgage and r/e taxes. house in both names. does the mortgage interest and r/e taxes have to be split if all paid by husband or is husband entitled to take full deduction.”
Usually a house is part of the divorce since it was bought while there was a marriage. This means that both of you have an interest in the house. You will have to settle with your husband what will happen with the house.
no, it is illegal both on the house - both have to sign one can sign a quick claim deed and then the other can refi the house? no, it is illegal both on the house - both have to sign one can sign a quick claim deed and then the other can refi the house?
Yes