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This depends on the type of condition that Tay-Sachs is.

Seeing that Tay-Sachs can be "carried" and not expressed, it is possible that it is a recessive condition. As such, the husband must be heterozygous, with an allele for Tay-Sachs, and a normal one.

Since his wife is homozygous normal, and taking into account the fact that one allele is taken from each parent, it is not possible for the children to have Tay-Sachs. However, the children may be carriers.

Note: This answer assumes that the gene for Tay-Sachs works in isolation.

Edit: this is a valid answer, it may have been misunderstood by the questioner. Since the disease is recessive, a 'carrier' like the husband would be heterozygous (carrying one allele for Tay Sachs disease and the other allele is 'normal'). If you could be sure that the wife is definitely homozygous 'normal' (ie both alleles are 'normal'), and that the gene works in isolation, then the first answerer is right, there is no chance that a child would have Tay Sachs disease but there would be a 50% chance that the child would be a carrier . However, unless the wife has been definitively genotyped for this disease, there is always the chance that she is a carrier also which could result in children with Tay Sachs disease.

It is 50% for the children to get the Tay-Sachs from the father, because the mother doesn't have any disease, do it is half.

This answer is satifactory to anyone who knows anything about Biology. The simple answer is none of the children will have it but there is a 50% chance of them being carriers. As stated above.

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Q: If a husband is a carrier of Tay-Sachs and his wife is homozygous normal what are the chances of the children having tay-sachs?
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If someone is a heterozygous carrier of the tay-sachs gene what is their genotype?

if someone is a Heterozygous carrier of Tay-Sachs they would have to be Tt. Because TT is Homozygous.


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How do you prove if something is heterozygous?

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