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Theoretically, that would be the case.

We are accustomed to thinking of land as a flat surface portrayed on a land survey of parcels with square corners, ninety degree angles, all laid out on a grid. However, we forget that on a larger scale the Earth is a sphere. Theoretically, where private ownership of land is allowed, each landowner would own wedge-shaped chunks of earth, some irregularly shaped, that taper toward the center of the sphere as they sink below the surface since the earth is round.

In the United States, generally, A landowner owns what is beneath their land in the form of mineral rights unless they were reserved, leased, sold by a prior owner or alienated in some other way. However, that ownership of the land is subject to all manner of modern laws and restrictions. The owner in fee of a parcel of land owns it absolutely. She can sell it, build on it, and leave it to her heirs in her will. If she dies without a will the laws of intestacy will see to it that the heirs get the property legally through probate.

In many other countries the government has reserved the mineral rights to land located within their borders, even in privately owned land.

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Wiki User

11y ago
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Anonymous

Lvl 1
3y ago
why are you trying to sound smart? it's a yes or no question.
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Wiki User

15y ago

No, they own the land itself only to the extent allowed by the state in which the land is located. The issue can sometimes be complicated and has resulted in many court battles concerning mineral rights.

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9y ago

Unless you clear Government liens on land even if you have paid the mortgage in full, you hold title which names you as equitable holder of the property and in truth you own NOTHING but a piece of paper which gives you the privilege of renting said property from the Government.

The difference is in the term "title deed" which makes you equitable holder as opposed to Allodial title. The following cite from wikipedia should help clear things up for you.

True allodial title is rare, with most property ownership in the common law world-primarily, the United Kingdom, the United States, Canada, Australia, New Zealand and the Republic of Ireland-described more properly as being in fee simple. In particular, land is said to be "held of the Crown" in England and Wales and the Commonwealth realms. In England, there is no allodial land, all land being held of the Crown; in the United States, all land is subject to eminent domain by federal, state and local government, and subject to the imposition of taxes by state and/or local governments, and there is thus no true allodial land. Some states within the US (notably Nevada, and Texas) have provisions for considering land allodial under state law, but such land remains rare. The constitution of the state of Minnesota states, "All lands within the state are allodial and feudal tenures of every description with all their incidents are prohibited." Some Commonwealth realms (particularly Australia) recognize native title, a form of allodial title that does not originate from a Crown grant. Some land in the Orkney and Shetland Islands, known as udal land, is held in a manner akin to allodial land in that these titles are not subject to the ultimate ownership of the Crown.[citation needed]

In conclusion, the Government is the true and rightful owner of almost all real property. If you have any doubts about this.... fail to pay your rent (taxes) for a few years and see what happens. The same is true for automobiles, boats, planes, etc... You own nothing and never will because the Government owns it ALL... even you, so get used to it.

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Q: If a person owns a piece of land do they own it all the way down to the center of the earth?
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