One party can sign an agreement to hold the other not responsible for the debt, for example, in a divorce agreement. However, the lender is under no obligation to honor that agreement. If the person who agrees to pay the mortgage defaults the lender can and will hold both parties equally responsible for the debt. The credit of both parties will be ruined and the bank may go after any assets owned by the "non-responsible-by-divorce-agreement" party.
The only way to become free of the mortgage obligation is to refinance in the one name who agreed to take over the debt and pay off the old mortgage.
The deed to property and the wording of the deed establishes ownership. If a married couple does not reside in a community property state it is very important that both spouses be on the deed with the correct ownership status noted. In a case of death where only one spouse is listed on the financial agreement but both are named on the deed the probate laws apply. If the surviving spouse wishes to retain the property and he or she is not a co-buyer they will most likely be required to reaffirm the mortgage with the lender if the mortgage was not protected by insurance.
You have to apply for a mortgage jointly for both people to be listed on a mortgage. You can however have your name added to a title of a house with simple paperwork.
If both are on the deed then both must sign the mortgage so that in the case of a default the lender can take possession of the property by foreclosure.If both are on the deed then both must sign the mortgage so that in the case of a default the lender can take possession of the property by foreclosure.If both are on the deed then both must sign the mortgage so that in the case of a default the lender can take possession of the property by foreclosure.If both are on the deed then both must sign the mortgage so that in the case of a default the lender can take possession of the property by foreclosure.
yes they are both responsible for jobs, and supporting each other
Since he is not listed as a borrower on the first mortgage his credit is not affected by paying or not paying that mortgage. Even if both loans are with the same company, he is only held responsible for the loan in which he signed.
The original deed of trust contains the names of both husband and wife. This is a Joint Tenancy Deed ... no changes can be made without the consent of both parties, and that includes refinancing. One or the other spouses will need to "buy out" the other's interest and gain sole ownership before attempting this.
The following is general information only. It depends on who is listed as a grantee on the deed. If the property was acquired by only one then they must sign the note and mortgage. California is a community property state so it is likely in that case that the lender would require that the other spouse sign their consent to the mortgage so it can take possession of the property in the case of a default.If both are on the deed then both must sign the note and mortgage.The following is general information only. It depends on who is listed as a grantee on the deed. If the property was acquired by only one then they must sign the note and mortgage. California is a community property state so it is likely in that case that the lender would require that the other spouse sign their consent to the mortgage so it can take possession of the property in the case of a default.If both are on the deed then both must sign the note and mortgage.The following is general information only. It depends on who is listed as a grantee on the deed. If the property was acquired by only one then they must sign the note and mortgage. California is a community property state so it is likely in that case that the lender would require that the other spouse sign their consent to the mortgage so it can take possession of the property in the case of a default.If both are on the deed then both must sign the note and mortgage.The following is general information only. It depends on who is listed as a grantee on the deed. If the property was acquired by only one then they must sign the note and mortgage. California is a community property state so it is likely in that case that the lender would require that the other spouse sign their consent to the mortgage so it can take possession of the property in the case of a default.If both are on the deed then both must sign the note and mortgage.
The basic assumption is that yes, the spouse is jointly responsible. It is assumed that both spouses will benefit from the transactions.
Generally, not if the property will be in the wife's name alone and her income is enough to qualify her as the sole borrower for the loan. Some lenders insist that both spouses sign the mortgage.
Yes, as long as both qualify.Yes, as long as both qualify.Yes, as long as both qualify.Yes, as long as both qualify.
In South Carolina, spouses are generally not responsible for debts that are solely in the other spouse's name. However, if the debt was incurred for household necessities or was jointly agreed upon, both spouses may be held liable. Consulting with a legal professional for guidance on your specific situation is recommended.
For spouses, people are "assigned" to each other. For children, they are once again "assigned" to their children - 1 boy 1 girl. Both you have to apply for.