Most states require that the seller notify the DMV within a specified period of time that the car has been sold. If you do that, you should be relieved of all responsibility for whatever happens after the car is sold, whether or not the buyer registers it. If you haven't done that, you should do so without further delay.
Yes.
Yes. The second lienholder can foreclose. The new buyer is still responsible for any senior liens.
Sold as is means you are not responsible. You are selling it as it is. Unfortunately in California there is no AS-IS clause for vehicle sales. If it is registered as operational and you sold as operational then the seller is responsible for smogging it. The title of an operational registered vehicle can NOT be transfered without a smog certificate. If it does not pass smog, the purchaser can require the seller to pay for repairs to pass smog. The work around is to register the vehicle as Planed Non-operation (PNO) and sell the vehicle as non-operational. It may not be driven or parked on a public street and would need to be towed from it's residence by the purchaser. The purchaser would then not be able to drive or operate the vehicle on public roads until they registered it as operational. The purchaser would be responsible at that point for smogging the vehicle since they would be the title holder at that time.
Do you have the title of the car in your name? Is there a loan on the car? You will have to register it if your name is on the title!
If the marriage was legal in Jamaica and registered there, then, yes, you are legally married in the U.S.
If you and the buyer are in agreement, then certainly. You would give the money back, and the buyer would give back the vehicle and the bill of sale. However, if the new owner has already registered it with the DMV, then the sale is completed and the vehicle has changed ownership. If the buyer still owes you money, and you didn't put a lien on the title, you would have to take the buyer to court.
Yes.
You can sell the car with expired plates. You just cannot drive it.
Yes, you are still registered to vote, ask your Social Studies teacher!
As a technical legal rule, the answer is that the buyer of a foreclosure home is not personally liable for back taxes that remain owed. However, the back taxes may well still serve as a lien on the property that can be foreclosed by the taxing authority. In other words, the government cannot make you pay the taxes, but they can take the property from you if the taxes are not paid. As a result, the real world answer is that the buyer of a foreclosed home is responsible for any back taxes still owed. Before you purchase foreclosed property, it is always a good idea to check the tax records to see if any back taxes are still owed. If they are, plan on paying them off as soon as possible. Unfortunately the new owner will still be responsible for the taxes. My friend got what she thought was a great deal on a split level until she got a bill for six thousand dollars back taxes. She was unable to pay so she lost the house.
The primary borrower is always responsible for the debt if he or she has signed a valid lending agreement. It would seem logical that if the lender required the primary to have a cosigner and the named person refused to take on that responsibility then the transaction would not occur.
It can be registered, but the repo man is still coming for it.