Was the 2nd lien included in and discharged in your bankruptcy? If not, then that lien still encumbers the title to the property and is probably a debt you still owe.
You still owe the money to the mortgage provider.
you then only have to pay the second
yes, but it rarely happens.
In foreclosure proceedings the 1st mortgage gets their money first. Either the 2nd mortgage will have to buy the 1st mortgage entirely and then sell your house or they will have to hope that whoever buys the mortgage at auction, will bid enough to pay them off.
The second mortgagee can foreclose and take possession of your property subject to the first mortgage.
You still owe the money to the mortgage provider.
Nothing happens to it. It still remains in second place.
you then only have to pay the second
yes, but it rarely happens.
nothing...it remains a lien on the property and a debt which is assumed by the successful bidder at the auction of the 2nd mortgage
In foreclosure proceedings the 1st mortgage gets their money first. Either the 2nd mortgage will have to buy the 1st mortgage entirely and then sell your house or they will have to hope that whoever buys the mortgage at auction, will bid enough to pay them off.
The second mortgagee can foreclose and take possession of your property subject to the first mortgage.
If the first mortgage is foreclosed the second mortgage lien gets wiped off the property by the foreclosure so the property can be sold free and clear of the second mortgage. However, the mortgagor still owes the debt to the lender and the lender can pursue collection of the amount due by a civil lawsuit.
When your home is foreclosed on, the first or second can start the process. If you have a first mortgage and a second mortgage, your first mortgage is the first lien holder. Therefore if the second was first to foreclose they would have to pay the balance or negotiate the balance (agree to lower payoff). When a home is foreclosed on, all debts against the home are extinguished.Normally in a foreclosure the first mortgage will not negotiate with the second mortgage, in this instance the second mortgage would be out of the picture. VALUE (appraisal) plays a huge role in this process.
AnswerThe first mortgage would have the first position on the lien. So if the second mortgage company foreclosed on the property - they would sell the property and the sale proceeds must go to pay off the first mortgage company first. Then, if there is anything left over, that money goes to the second mortgage company.For example, there is a first mortgage of 100,000 and a second mortgage of 40,000. The property is foreclosed and sold for 125,000. The first mortgage gets paid off (100,000) and the second mortgage company gets the remaining 25,000.The property owner still owes the second mortgage company the other 15,000.--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Not true. Maybe different laws in different states but here the 2nd mortgage foreclosure sale does not directly effect the 1st mortgage. It remains a lien.
The mortgage companies will end up fighting over the proceeds when your house is sold after foreclosure.
The second mortgage holder typically needs to approve the first mortgage refinance because they hold a subordinate position to the first mortgage. Refinancing the first mortgage could impact the second mortgage holder's position, so their consent is often required to make changes to the primary loan.