Generally yes, unless there are other circumstances.
he is gay because he married another man, and he slept with him and they adopted babies.
Although it is not 100% accurate, the best indicator that a man has slept with another man is when he says he has.
Depends if you are a woman or a man ! If a woman then maybe, if that is what you fantasize about. I a man then no !
Usually the same way as a woman wins a man. Much more difficult is the process of actually finding another suitable gay man that they like.
well when a man has an "attraction" to another man.
a man who is married to another man
yes
No. It is only gay if the man is sexually attracted to other men.
No, it is only gay if the man is sexually attracted to other men.
because he is gay
Yes. A married man can either be gay and be married to another man, or a married man can be gay and be married to a woman.
Because it is the simple past tense, "The man slept in the chair" can have more than one connotation, which can be explained with additional context: "The man always slept in the chair." "The man slept in the chair because he was too tired to go home." "The man slept in the chair despite the activity taking place around him."