Is a sales agreement binding if your wife puts your name on the credit application but you never signed it?
Absolutely, positively, not.
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Sales agreements are not binding to any party however sales contracts are. You are not legally bound if you did not sign the sales contract. Consequently you may have a credit inquiry on your record that you did not request.
Can a credit card company hold you responsible for a credit card if no application contract or agreement of terms exists?
No. Providing signed agreements increase the costs of doing business and these costs would ultimately be passed on to the consumer as higher rates or higher fees. When you signed the application and the credit card company approved you, you innately accept the contract as binding without having an explicit signature from a member of the issuing organization. After one completes an application and the credit card issuer makes a positive lending decision, the new…
Is a credit card contractual agreement enforceable if there is no signed copy of the card agreement in existence and can a contractual agreement exist only by the signing of the card and its use?
That is unlikely. Generally, any agreement for the sale of real estate must be in writing and signed by the parties. That is unlikely. Generally, any agreement for the sale of real estate must be in writing and signed by the parties. That is unlikely. Generally, any agreement for the sale of real estate must be in writing and signed by the parties. That is unlikely. Generally, any agreement for the sale of real estate…
Yes. In many states, the dealership can send in an application for credit approval without a signed credit application. That is called pre-approval. They can make it real easy for you to buy. The loan does not become official until you sign the papers. You do not owe one cent until you sign the papers and drive off in your car. Still, the dealership can do the work of getting you credit approval before you…
The first step that makes a sale binding is the execution of the purchase and sale agreement by both parties. You will then be bound by the terms of that agreement. Many people wait until they have signed the P&S before they retain an attorney to represent them in the purchase. However, an attorney should review the agreement before you sign.
There are a number of legal rules which apply to agreements or contracts, so I cannot say that any signed agreement is valid; but if the agreement meets other requirements for legality, and is signed, then that signature is legally binding. A signed agreement does not have to be witnessed by another person (for example, anytime you write a check, that is an instruction to your bank to make a payment to another person, and…
Can a bank go into your checking account and take money out If I am overdue on credit card payments?
Am I within my rights to expect my debtor to pay interest and costs incurred and can he legally refuse to do so?
If he is your debtor 'by judgment' then the judgment papers should set down the specific circumstances. If not a court ordered judgment, you will probably have to take him to court If your original contract and/or credit application that the debtor signed provides for any late fees, collection or court costs, or interest then they would legally be bound to pay them, and if they refuse you can take them to court for those…
Covenant is a legal agreement between states internationally and when it is signed it is internationally legally binding for parties signed. Convention is an official agreement between countries or leaders. If states do not sign it, states will not be having any responsibility to fulfill or bring it within the national jurisdiction. It means practically the same with covenant.
Is it legal in the state of Pennsylvania for a private club to charge a convenience fee on a credit card charge?
You cosigned for an ex but you are not on any of the paper work is this legal for the dealership to do?
Via email a tenant agreed to continue his lease Now he wants to break the lease saying that an email is not legally-binding. Is an email agreement legally-binding in Napa County California?
Can a credit card company hold an agent personally responsible for charges made on behalf of the principal on a company credit card?
The only way is if you signed an agreement to be responsible for the card. The card agreement was first signed by an officer of the company and then added you as a authorized user. But they can't hold you responsible for any of the debt unless fraud is envolved and then you don't need to worry about the card company you will have much bigger problems.
If it is signed by both parties it is a binding contract. The lessee can cancel, but may be subject to cancellation fees. The landlord can cancel if the tenant has broken the lease agreement in any way. This would entail a notice from the landlord to the tenant. If the renewal is signed by only one party, it is not yet valid.
Domestic partnership agreement refers to a legally binding contract signed by two parties who wish to memorialize the terms of their domestic partnership. It can contain clauses concerning housing, including rental housing, but nothing in the DP agreement can supersede the lease agreement. For example, the DP agreement can determine who is responsible for paying the rent, but it cannot relieve anyone of their responsibilities under a lease agreement. The lease agreement is a separate…
No. You can enter into any agreement whether you understand it or not. No law protects the stupid from a bad contract. It is up to the buyer to have their own legal representation when purchasing real property. The buyer's attorney should be on hand to review any P&S Agreement before it's signed binding the buyer to the terms of the contract.