"There is none" could be a proper answer to the question, "Do you have any medication here?" Since "none" is a contraction of "no one", many grammarians would consider that "there is none" is always correct.
It is correct to say "None of these recipes is tricky." The word "none" is singular in this context, so it should be followed by a singular verb "is," not "are."
Yes, "None of the children were hurt" is a grammatically correct statement.
No, it would be "None of the children were hurt"
"None of you are" is correct. "None" is treated as a plural pronoun, so it should be followed by a plural verb.
"None have" is correct when referring to plural nouns, while "none has" is correct when referring to singular nouns.
You are asking about two issues here: one is number (singular or plural), and the other is tense (present or past). Whether you use present or past tense depends on what you want to say. If you are talking about a past event, you would say "none of them came in time". If you are summarizing the plot of a book or movie, in which several people fail to rescue someone, it would be correct to use the present tense. As to whether to use a singular or plural verb, you will find disagreement on the answer to this. Some people insist that because the word "none" comes from "no one", it is always singular, so that you must say "None of them comes in time." However, many authorities on grammar say that it is perfectly correct to say "None of them come in time."
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no, there is nothing correct.
yeah its better to be half hungry than fully hungry
The construction is correct but the spelling is not; 'none of which'
none answers are correct
That is correct. There are none.