That depends on the constitution, and the reasons to deny the vote (given that constitution). For example in the United States attempting to deny 1 million people the right to vote because they were black would be seen as a constitutional violation, but by the same token most would accept that those 1 million people were felons (most would never ask what the 'crime was').
Fourteenth Amendment
this answer is pretty simple whoever is registered can vote if you vote in time.i think there is no limit because millions of people vote and the government encurages people to vote esapecially if it is a tie breaker.i say you have to use logic to answer this question
This will have to be a laymans answer until corrected by someone more knowledgible. States may legally deny the right to vote to: 1. Those to young to qualify. 2. Non-residents. 3. Convicted felons. 4. Those with fradulent documents.
The 24th Amendment stated poll taxes could not be used to deny a person the right to vote.
No. Even if it were true, there isn't any way to do this. Any such laws would be instantly unconstitutional.
the right to vote
Right to vote, right to own property,
Yup! The 19th Amendment stated that you cannot deny any sex to vote. Hence, both women and men could vote. Due to the 15th Amendment, you cannot deny a person to vote due to race, so now all citizens of the United States were eligible to vote after the 19th Amendment.
By installing Jim-Crow Laws which limited the vote to people who met certain qualifications. Often times when an African-American passed these qualifications they would be denied anyways.
Yes, people can vote in Oman.Yes, people can vote in Oman.Yes, people can vote in Oman.Yes, people can vote in Oman.Yes, people can vote in Oman.Yes, people can vote in Oman.Yes, people can vote in Oman.Yes, people can vote in Oman.Yes, people can vote in Oman.Yes, people can vote in Oman.Yes, people can vote in Oman.
Black codes.
Yes, both were instituted to deny certain groups the right to vote.