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That depends on the constitution, and the reasons to deny the vote (given that constitution). For example in the United States attempting to deny 1 million people the right to vote because they were black would be seen as a constitutional violation, but by the same token most would accept that those 1 million people were felons (most would never ask what the 'crime was').

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Q: Is it unconstitutional for one man to deny the vote of millions of people?
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