KWhat is the correct translation of John chapter 10 verse 18 from the bible?

Answer 1

I checked out both the KJV and the New International Version and I see no great variation between the two translations. I even checked the Literal Bible and Strong's Definitions, which also agrees with them.

What translation are you speaking of that tells you that Jesus meant anything different from what these are saying?

He was simply saying that it was totally within His power to shed His blood for us... or not. HE COULD HAVE BACKED OUT OF THE ARRANGEMENT ANY TIME HE WANTED TO!

In which case, mankind would have been doomed.

He even prayed to His Father (three times) to be released from the gruesome ordeal... that maybe His Father could arrange some other way to save us. But, Jesus relented, and obeyed His Father's will - "... nevertheless not as I will, but as Thou wilt." (Matt.26:39)

"...He had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto Him that was able to save Him from death, and was heard IN THAT HE FEARED; though He were a Son, yet LEARNED HE OBEDIENCE by the things which He suffered; and being made perfect, He became the author of Eternal Salvation unto all them that obey Him..." (Heb.5:7-9).

He overcame the desperate selfishness of His fleshly nature - self-preservation... and obeyed His Father's voice. He chose "love"... selfless, giving love... His Father's way and will.

He willingly accepted "His responsibility to save us from the god of this world." To open the door for adoption into the Family of God by shedding His Divine blood as the one True all-encompassing sacrifice for the remission of sins for our salvation.