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Generally, the simple answer to your question would be yes. The slightly more complicated answer is that judges are commonly required to disclose any prior connection with one of the parties, or any other potential factor that might affect the judges ability to impartially preside over a case, and then offer to recuse themselves. Ordinarily, parties can agree to waive any basis upon which a judge would ordinarily recuse himself or herself.

The specific law regarding requirements for when a judge must recuse him or herself are not universal, but vary according to the particular jurisdiction.

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Q: Must a judge legally recuse herself when the defendant was her client for a similar crime 10 years past?
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