No. It has warped the US legal system badly.
A. Lakshminath has written: 'Precedent in Indian Law' 'Precedent in the Indian legal system' -- subject(s): Stare decisis
It works and is used frequently.
The Common Law
The Common Law
he would recieve 10,000 mlds
Not many people know but I think it's because it was a new thing
binding(mandatory) precedent persuasive precedent
That depends on which court you're referring to. In the federal court system, the US Supreme Court sets binding (or mandatory) precedent for all lower courts; the US Court of Appeals Circuit Courts set binding precedent for all US District Courts within their jurisdiction, but only persuasive precedent elsewhere; the US District Courts do not set binding precedent at all, they only set persuasive precedent.
tactics and training. and firm belief in service for Germany & Hitler
an appeal to precedent is a type of an appeal to precedent is a type of
The way the question is asked: USING judicial precedent, means that the judge is following the lead of a decision in a similar case that has already been decided upon and he is ruling the same way using the other case as a guideline. If the questioner meant to ask what does SETTING judicial precedent mean. . . that means that the judge was rendering a decision in a case of a type that had never been tried, or ruled upon, in the past, and that his verdict would set the 'precedent' by which all future cases might be judged. Judges, by the way, do NOT necessarily have to follow precedent in making rulings.
Common law precedent simply refers to the tradition in the Anglo-American legal system of following the rules set down in previous cases involving the same facts. As such, there is no particular time when common law precedent was enacted or affected as a general matter. Each particular precedent came into being when the first case that addressed the issue was decided.