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Should women become vicars?

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Answered 2015-07-16 17:32:04

God says in The Bible in Genesis 3:16 that men were to 'rule over'/'be subject to'/ and to dominate women. Three different translations bring out three different nuances, but the sense is still the same: men were to have authority over women:-

Gen 3:16 Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee.

Gen 3:16 (GNB) And he said to the woman, "I will increase your trouble in pregnancy and your pain in giving birth. In spite of this, you will still have desire for your husband, yetyou will be subject to him."

Gen 3:16 (NET) To the woman he said,

"I will greatly increase your labor pains;

with pain you will give birth to children.

You will want to control your husband,

but he will dominate you."

This was reiterated by Paul:-

1Ti 2:11-14 NET A woman must learn quietly with all submissiveness. [v. 12] But I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man. She must remain quiet. [v. 13] For Adam was formed first and then Eve. [v. 14] And Adam was not deceived, but the woman, because she was fully deceived, fell into transgression.

Note that God says in Genesis 3:16 that women will want to have authority over men, and God says through Paul that women are more easily deceived than man.

Some will say this was only Paul's opinion, but Peter says that Paul's writings were to be regarded as scripture:-

2 Peter 3:16 speaking of these things in all his [ie Paul's] letters. Some things in these letters are hard to understand, things the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they also do to the rest of the scriptures.(see Scriptural Note58)

The 'Scriptural Note no 58' by the translators of the 'Net' version of the Bible says

58sn This one incidental line,'the rest of the scriptures', links Paul's writings with scripture. This is thus one of the earliest affirmations of any part of the NT as scripture. Peter's words were prophetic and were intended as a preemptive strike against the heretics to come.

When Peter wrote this Paul was already dead, having been executed by Nero about 68AD, with Peter himself being executed only a little later about 68/69AD. Peter had no reason to lie because he knew he was going to die.

God gives the qualifications for a 'bishop', or 'overseer', and they were the same for a deacon.

1Ti 3:1-8 BBE This is a true saying, A man desiringthe position of a Bishop has a desire for a good work. [v. 2] The Bishop, then, is to be a man of good name, the husband of one wife, self-controlled, serious-minded, having respect for order, opening his house freely to guests, a ready teacher; [v. 3] Not quickly moved to wrath or blows, but gentle; no fighter, no lover of money; [v. 4] Ruling his house well, having his children under control with all serious behaviour; [v. 5] For if a man has not the art of ruling his house, how will he take care of the church of God?[v. 6] Not one newly taken into the church, for fear that, through his high opinion of himself, he may come into the same sin as the Evil One. [v. 7] And he is to have a good name among those outside the church, so that nothing may be said against him and he may not be taken by the designs of the Evil One. [v. 8]Deacons, in the same way, are to be .....

The word 'deacon' comes from the Greek 'diakonos' [Strong's No G1249] and Strong says it means 'specifically a Christian teacher and pastor (technically a deacon or deaconess): - deacon, minister, servant'. As vicars are also a 'diakonos' or 'deacon, minister, servant' and subject to the same restrictions, this means that women should not become vicars at all, just as it means that some men are also unsuitable, no matter how much they may wish otherwise.

I know this may be unpopular, but the important thing is to obey God and not man.

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