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Yes, Hitler obtained what he wanted from both Britain and France. This allowed him to proceed with his seizure of the Sudentland, which led to the eventual absorption of Czechoslovakia by the Third Reich. If either France or Britain would have been willing to stand up to Hitler militarily, then Hitler would have been forced to back down. The reason being that the Wehrmacht was not ready to handle a 2 front war.

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Q: Was Hitler happy with the Munich Agreement?
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Related questions

The agreement with Hitler in 1938?

It was called the Munich agreement.


Where did Hitler get permission to take Czechoslovakia?

Hitler obtained permission to go to war with Czechoslovakia in Munich, Germany via the Munich agreement. The Munich Agreement occurred in 1938.


Agreement that gave Hitler part of Czechoslovakia?

The Munich agreement.


What was the agreement that gave Hitler part of Czechoslovakia?

Munich Agreement


What agreement gave Hitler part of Czechoslovakia?

The Munich Agreement.


Hitler violated the Munich agreement when he invaded in 1939?

When Hitler invaded Poland and other countries in 1939 and 1940 he violated the Munich Agreement.


Agreement that gave Hitler part of Czechoslovakia in 1938?

The Munich Agreement


Place in Germany where agreement with Hitler was reached in 1938?

Munich


Why did Britain and France agree to the Czech Sudetenland to Hitler?

The Munich Agreement was signed in Munich , Germany .


What did the agreement that Hitler made with Stalin in 1939 allow Hitler to do?

The Munich Agreement in effect tranferred the Sudentenland from Czechoslovakia to Germany.


What was signed when Hitler promised not to ask for more land in Europe?

The Munich Agreement


How did the appeasement policy end in the 1930s?

Hitler broke the Munich Agreement and invaded Czechoslovakia.