If you are referring to the appeasement of Hitler, it could be considered a mistake. However, neither the French and especially the British would not have gone to war over the Sudentland, so Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain had no choice. A war would not have been supported. Either way, Hitler would have taken the Sudentland, war or no war.
Appeasement did not work historically.
Whether or not it will work today or in the future, is an issue split along the line. Liberals and conservatives have different views on this.
Here's one example of a conservative view against appeasement:
http://www.americansolvent.com/2009/07/05/appeasement-and-why-it-doesnt-work/
http://www.americansolvent.com/2009/06/23/the-peril-of-non-aggression-in-foreign-policy/
Simply.... No. The appeasement in WW2 was not successful. Neville Chamberlain gave Hitler the Sudetenland under the condition that he would not go on to invade the rest of the Czech Republic (then, Czechoslovakia) despite this Hitler ignored Chamberlain completely and invaded the rest of Czechoslovakia.
But....
We were not ready to fight the inevitable war that was coming, Neville Chamberlain bought us time.
In the end we came out as victors (also down to the Russians and Americans)
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Appeasement of Adolf Hitler and the Nazi Third Reich did not work because Adolf Hitler had no intention of honoring the non-aggression pacts he signed with France, Britain, Russia and other nations.
Some historians contend it didn't go far enough, others will tell you that it caused WWII.
Yes because it gave people a false sense of security from the Nazis.
The appeasement was wrong since it did nothing but showing weakness in Britain.
Prior to World War II, Britain tried a strategy of appeasement with Hitler. It didn't work, and Hitler ended up taking Austria and Czechoslovakia.
appeasement before world war 2Britain and France was after WWII but Britain and Germany before WWIIAnsweri only know two countries that held an appeasement before war broke out in 1939. these two countries are BRITAIN and GERMANY. i hope that this has helped you with your reasearch.
Answer this question… European appeasement of German aggression in an effort to avoid conflict
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appeasement
Yes it was a mistake because it caused World War 2
because it just was
nothing
because...
The policy of appeasement contributed to the start of World War 2. When the allied countries gave in to Hitler's first demands it encouraged him to try for more.
Not at all. WWII was fought.
Prior to World War II, Britain tried a strategy of appeasement with Hitler. It didn't work, and Hitler ended up taking Austria and Czechoslovakia.
"Appeasement" .
1937
Appeasement did not really lead to the outbreak of World War 2 in the European Theater. The Nazis had already planned on invading nations so the appeasement and the non-aggression pacts were all merely a joke to the Nazis.
appeasement before world war 2Britain and France was after WWII but Britain and Germany before WWIIAnsweri only know two countries that held an appeasement before war broke out in 1939. these two countries are BRITAIN and GERMANY. i hope that this has helped you with your reasearch.
AppeasementThe policy of appeasement.