From 1521 until the end of Mexican War of Independence in 1821, Mexico was part of the Spanish Empire.
Britain, France and Spain were the first countries to colonize in the New World. Spain was the first, since it was the most powerful European country, adn it colonized Mexico and the West. France's colonies were farther north, in what is now Canada. Britain was last to colonize and it had the 13 bristish colonies split in three colonies: New England, Middle, and Southern colonies.
I guess you mean "least developed country" or "medium developed country". It is neither.According to the scale you are using, Mexico falls within the category of "High developing countries", just below the likes of Chile, Hungary or Poland.MEDC
Mexico is a country in Central America, just south of the USA.
All of them were considered overseas colonies of European countries in the Americas; the United States and Canada were colonies of England, while Mexico was a colony of Spain. This means they belonged to European countries, not that they were part of Europe: geographically speaking, all of them are American.
Brasil and Mexico but all the Latin American countries were affected by European exploration.
You mean "developed" or industrialized? No. It is an "emerging market" or "newly industrialized country".
The Spanish Empire conquered Mexico in 1521.
No. It is still developing from an agricultural country into a developed country. See related questions.
Spain qualifies as such.
The Spanish Empire qualifies as such.
European settlers had to adapt to the reality of their lives in an isolated area.
LEDC = Less Economically Developed Country. Mexico falls within this category, as it isn't fully industrialized.