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What are the legal rights of an unmarried couple to a home when they are separate and both their names are on the deed but only one is the mortgage holder for the house?
Wiki User
∙ 16y ago
The answer depends on the details that were not included and its a complicated situation. In order for the lender to perfect their interest in the mortgaged real estate, all the owners must sign the note and mortgage.
If your name was on the deed as joint owner before the mortgage was granted and only the other owner signed that mortgage then the bank can only foreclose on the co-owner's half interest if the mortgage isn’t paid. Your half interest would be free of the mortgage. Generally, if you own an interest in real property and don't sign the mortgage, the bank cannot foreclose on your interest in the case of a default since YOU did not transfer your interest to the bank.
If your name was added by deed after the mortgage was granted then your interest in the property is subject to the mortgage. If the mortgage isn't paid the bank can take possession of the property. Also, changing the names on a deed for property that is subject to a mortgage may trigger the due on transfer clause. Most mortgages carry boilerplate language that provides if the property is transferred the lender can demand full payment of the mortgage. That means if the sole owner of the property grants a mortgage and then transfers an interest in the property to another person, the bank can demand the full payment of the mortgage- immediately.
If there is no issue with the mortgage being paid and if you acquired a half interest by a valid deed then you will be paid half of the net proceeds if the property is sold. You are also responsible for paying the property taxes.
Wiki User
∙ 8y ago
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Can a second mortgage holder foreclose on a first bank mortgage holder?
yes, but it rarely happens.
Can a second mortgage foreclose without letting the first mortgage know?
The only way would be for the 2nd mortgage holder to "buy out" or "pay off" the 1st mortgage holder. Even then, I believe most states require that the 1st mortgage holder receive notification.
Why does the second mortgage holder have to approve of the first mortgage refinance?
The second mortgage holder typically needs to approve the first mortgage refinance because they hold a subordinate position to the first mortgage. Refinancing the first mortgage could impact the second mortgage holder's position, so their consent is often required to make changes to the primary loan.
If payments have been made to the second mortgage holder but not to the first Mortgage holder can the first mortgage holder reclaim any of those payments from the second mortgage holder?
No. However, in the case of a foreclosure sale (or any sale), the first lien holder will always be made whole (paid completely) before any sale proceeds are applied to the subordinate liens.
What happens to a mortgage loan when the sole loan holder dies and the property is titled Joint tenants with full rights of suvivorship?
The mortgage obligation remains on the property. If the holder of the mortgage dies then her heirs own the mortgage.
If payments have been made to the second mortgage but not to the first Mortgage can the first mortgage holder reclaim any of those payments from the second mortgage holder?
No, the first lien hold cannot claim or collect any monies from the 2nd lien holder. The lien holders sole recourse is with the borrower.
Does mortgage holder or deed holder sign at closing?
If the property is subject to a mortgage the mortgage must be paid off at the time of the sale of the property to a new owner. The holder of the mortgage must provide a signed release of the mortgage that can be recorded in the land records.The owner of the property signs the deed that transfers the property to the new owner.The new owner of the property signs the new mortgage.
What happens to your mortgage if your condo is condemned in California?
You can find the answer you want by asking the mortgage holder.
Can the second mortgage holder force the sell of your home?
Yes. If you do not pay the 2nd mortgage, you can lose your home in a foreclosure sale. The difference between the first and 2nd mortgage holder in that case varies according to the unit of government. The law in the United States is according to state law. At one time in this state, the first mortgage holder had certain rights concerning whether or not to foreclose. There was a time period when the first mortgage holder had the chance to try to sell the first mortgage or something like that. I have not kept up with all the changes in the law involving second mortgages. Still, when there is a foreclosure, the first mortgage holder gets paid off first. If there is anything left, the second mortgage holder gets paid. Some commercial property has as much as a fifth mortgage.
If someone died and left a house with a mortgage in a trust can you just keep making the house payments or do you need to notify the mortgage holder and can they demand the note be paid in full?
You didn't say if the person who left the house was a parent or a friend. If it's parents you must provide a copy of the death certificate to the mortgage holder. Usually, the mortgage holder would have no problem with you continuing on with the payments. Depending on where you stand in the Will you may have to take a loan out to either pay the full mortgage the mortgage holder is holding, and then make your mortgage payments to your own banking institution. It's best to go straight to the mortgage holder and ask these questions so there are no mistakes made. Good luck Marcy
What happens to the joint mortgage holder of a take over mortgage if the original mortgage holder pays the loan?
The joint person is still responsible until the loan is paid off or refinanced out of the person's joint name.
What can you do if your mortgage payment is 2 months late?
call the mortgage holder and make payment arrangements
