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There was no foreign owned plantations in the middle ages. The "plantation" system developed in the south and Caribbean in the late 1700's and early 1800's. This is several hundred years after the middle ages. Peasants worked on the land owned by the king. In Europe in the middle ages there was a patch work of holdings by nobles who gained land from marriages and the king as a reward for service. There wasn't "foreign owned" lands.

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Q: What did peasants working on foreign-owned plantations suffer from?
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Did things get better for the peasants after the peasants revolt?

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Related questions

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