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It is kind of tricky when you read it fast, but let's slow down and read it.:

"There is no man...

who has never looked upon a women...

without desire."

This means that every man has one time or another looked upon a women with desire.

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11y ago
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AnswerBot

1mo ago

The statement suggests that all men, at some point, have likely experienced a moment of looking at a woman without feeling desire or attraction. It acknowledges the complexity of human interactions and the potential for platonic or neutral gaze, despite societal assumptions about male desire towards women.

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Q: What does it mean there is no man who has never looked upon a woman without desire. It seems to me that it means all men have at some point looked upon a woman without desire?
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What does it mean there is no man who has never looked upon a woman without desire It seems to you that it means all men have at some point looked upon a woman without desire?

Yes, that is what it is saying. Probably the statement is garbled in some manner. It seems to be pointless to say that every man has at some point looked at a woman without feeling sexual desire. This is probably true, but it is also a trivial observation. (I say probably true because it is always possible to quibble. For example, some men are born blind, and therefore have never looked upon a woman at all, with or without desire.) Chances are, what the author of this statement was trying to say was that every man has felt sexual desire for a woman at some point. And that is not the case. Not all men feel sexual desire for women. There are some homosexuals who only feel desire for their fellow men.


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