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It is unclear from the question WHO it is that has the restraiing order against them.

If the person who was 'restrained' damaged property belonging to the person who sought the order, then they are probably not only in violation of the restraiining order, they are also liable for any criminal charge wihich might arise out of their vandalism.

If the person who sought the order is the one who was arrested for vandalism, they too might well be in violation of the order too (i.e.: you cannot violate the same order that you requested) as well as any criminal charges arising from the act of vandalism.

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Q: What happens when a victim with a restrain order is arrested for vandalism by police?
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