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The English in your question is not very clear in what you mean to ask. The Dutch Republic became formally independent in 1648 after succesfully fighting the so-called Eighty Year's War of independence against the rule of the Spanish king Philip II.
The main reasons for the war were that the (Catholic) Spanish king tried to forcibly surpress Protestantism in the Netherlands which didn't sit well with a people largely tolerant of Protestants. The other, equally important reason was that the king decided to institute new taxes in the Netherlands, a thing that the Dutch considered a complete infringement on their ancient rights and earlier privileges given to them by the King's predecessors.
The form of that Spanish rule since the start of this war had mostly consisted of Governors appointed by the King of Spain who were supposed to rule the Dutch from the Low Countries' administrative seat of Brussels (the capital of today's Belgium). After the start of the independence war, these Governors had little or no effective administrative power over the northern Dutch and mostly acted as army Generals in a great series of siege expeditions within the Dutch Republic.
Effectively, the Dutch had already achieved full independence by the year 1609. The 1648 Treaty of Westphalia only formally confirmed the fact that Spanish rule had mostly ended there for the last 39 years. The southern part of the Low Countries was to remain under Spanish and later, Austrian rule until the French Revolution.
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Q: What is the Spanish rule from 1648 that made dutch republic won?
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