The use of the pluperfect ("had been told") is to indicate action occurring earlier than some other action in the past tense. For example: I was told to wait, so I stood there. But: I was standing there because I had been told to wait.
"Has Been" is the grammatically correct way to say "Had Been".
Has been is present perfect
Present perfect is used to talk about general experience - what you have done in your life up till now. (and other uses)
eg I have been to China and the Philippines.
Had been is past perfect.
Past perfect is used to talk about one thing in the past that happened before another thing in the past.
We went to China last month, I had been there twice before.
Much the same as the difference between to and in.
one has been on the end
had been is before and was is just there
The difference between the 1938, 1959 and 1952 is that it has been progressively modernized.
The difference is that "has been" is grammatically correct. "Is been" does not work because "been" refers to the past while "is" refers to the present. "Has been" works because both "has" and "been" agree in tense.
The grease
"TO" means to go to, to see. "IN" means to take part in, be part of
You have been walking is present tense and you walked is past
"could" asumes it may have, "would" asumes it was.
compacted
Laws have been proven, theories have not
There is no difference. Both have been ordained. However, there is a difference between a priest or monk who has been sanctioned to teach and one who hasn't. It's possible to call those who have been sanctioned to teach "priests" and those who haven't "monks." .