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What monarchs tried but failed to establish absolute monarchy?
CarolynDonald
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∙ 10y ago
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∙ 11y agoCharles I
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An absolute monarch is a head of state who governs unconstrained by any substantive constitutional law. The advantages of Absolute Monarchy lie in the concentration of power and responsibility in the person of the monarch. Where the local culture includes no tradition of peaceful power sharing, absolute monarchy may be an attractive alternative. The disadvantages can be readily discerned from the very small list of nations which continue to be ruled by absolute monarchs. While these nations may be adequately governed most nations have moved away from this system of government. Of those that remain Absolute Monarchies most are small and economically underdeveloped. All remaining Absolute Monarchies appear on the list of failed nation states.
Was the French Revolution beneficial to ordinary citizens?
It failed to wipe out everone's poverty and suffering but it was an improvement over what existed in the days of an absolute monarchy. They had become citizens of France.
How did Thomas Jefferson establish justice?
No, he failed to unlike Martin Luther King. He failed to free the slaves, too but he failed badly
Why Oliver Cromwell's rule like that of an absolute monarch?
Cromwell's rule was increasingly authoritarian and he became extremely unpopular. Most of the English were not unhappy at his death in 1658. Attempts to have Cromwell's son take his place failed and the monarchy was restored in England.
Was the minoan civilization weakened because it failed to establish a strong navy?
no
Why was Roanoke island and Jamestown established?
Roanoke Island was intended to be the first English colony in America for economic reasons, but it ultimately failed due to lack of supplies and support. Jamestown was established as an English settlement in 1607 primarily for economic purposes, as the Virginia Company hoped to find gold and establish trade with the Native Americans.
Why did democracy fail to establish itself in Latin America after former Spanish and Portuguese colonies had gained their independence?
Democracy failed in Latin America after Spanish and Portuguese Colonies gained their independence because at the time, Spain and Portugal were ruled by a monarchy. King Ferdinand of Spain controlled both countries and their territories.
How were political movements in Algeria both successful and damaging to the country following World War 2?
They succeeded in overthrowing the French colonial government, but failed to establish a strong economy.
How were political movements in Ghana both successful and damaging to the country following world ward II?
They succeeded in overthrowing the French colonial government but failed to establish a strong economy.
What types of government existed in the city-states?
Monarchy, oligarchy, tyranny, democracy, radical democracy.
What made the execution of one king and the overthrow of another possible in England?
In medieval and early modern times many European countries had various kinds of parliaments (assemblies of the estates of the realm). From about 1600 onwards absolute monarchs in Continental Europe busily tried to make these bodies powerless. In England, King James I (1603-25) and his son, Charles I (1625-49) tried to do much the same. Both failed ignominiously. The English Parliament was probably a little more respresentative than its Continental counterparts, and the English middle classes were already powerful enough to resist the absolute monarchy. Moreover, the standard Continental excuse for crushing all dissent - the claim that 'the enemy is at the gates' - just didn't even begin to make sense in England. Between about 1605 and 1640 all kinds of fictitious notions about the limited powers of the monarchy (reinterpretation of Magna Carta and so on) gained widespread acceptable. Eleven years after the beheading of Charles I the monarhcy was restored, but it was a much reduced monarchy. :)
What conditions in England made the execution of one king and the overthrow of another?
In medieval and early modern times many European countries had various kinds of parliaments (assemblies of the estates of the realm). From about 1600 onwards absolute monarchs in Continental Europe busily tried to make these bodies powerless. In England, King James I (1603-25) and his son, Charles I (1625-49) tried to do much the same. Both failed ignominiously. The English Parliament was probably a little more respresentative than its Continental counterparts, and the English middle classes were already powerful enough to resist the absolute monarchy. Moreover, the standard Continental excuse for crushing all dissent - the claim that 'the enemy is at the gates' - just didn't even begin to make sense in England. Between about 1605 and 1640 all kinds of fictitious notions about the limited powers of the monarchy (reinterpretation of Magna Carta and so on) gained widespread acceptable. Eleven years after the beheading of Charles I the monarhcy was restored, but it was a much reduced monarchy. :)
