The accompanying documents to the summons should state what damages/restitiution the plaintiff/lender is seeking. Generally the vehicle is repossessed, sold at public auction and then the lender takes action to recover the remaining amount plus recovery fees and penalties owed on the loan. Although now, many states have enacted legislation that allows the lender to sue for the entire amount of the loan plus applicable costs rather than go to the expense and trouble of recovering the vehicle. This action has proved to be very advantageous for the lender who wins such a suit and very damaging for the borrower. It would be prudent for the borrower/defendant to obtain legal representation or at least legal advice on the matter.
Confusing, but there are a number of scenarios where this might be possible. First, if the lender is the lender on the vehicle, the ARE a lien holder. They may not have "perfected" the lien, that is registered it with the state, but that is an easy matter for them to rectify. Second, if they are not the lender on the vehicle, and there is no other lien holder, provided they have a judgment, the court may order the surrender or sale of other property to satisfy the debt and the judgment. Third, if you have two vehicles with the same lender, and you are defaulted on one but current on the other, the lender may choose to do what is called a"converson of collateral." If so, then the lender may repossess the vehicle you are current on due to the default on the other. They will take which ever vehicle is the esiest to recover in these situations.
Yes, the lender can recover the vehicle any time after the lending contract becomes in default.
If the lender decides to sue the borrower and wins a judgment, the judgment can be executed as a wage garnishment
There are no legal differences between the borrower voluntarily relinquishing a vehicle or the lender having to initiate repossession action (with perhaps the exception of additional monetary charges). If an outstanding balance remains on the original loan amount after the vehicle is sold at public auction the lender can file suit to gain a judgment against the borrower for the amount still owed. If a judgment is awarded the judgment creditor may execute it according to the laws of the state. This being the case it is possible for a judgment holder to place a lien against real property owned by the judgment debtor.
No, you can have a judgment against you for a default.
This is a relatively complicated matter, but if you sold the vehicle 3+ years ago, and no longer have any legal interest in the vehicle, but you failed to pay the outstanding balance on the loan, the lender has a legal right to the judgment against you. They cannot outright take any property of yours. They can garnish your wages, your bank accounts, and secure any monetary accounts you have. They can petition the court for the sale of other real property you have. If you have any other loans with this lender that are secured by collateral, they may convert that collateral and secure it to cover the outstanding judgment. They cannot legally secure the car from the other owner in New York state. It is a lien loss. The contract they have is with you. The vehicle no longer secures that contract. And, whether or not you have knowledge of the judgment, they can have it enforced. As you were not present when they secured it, it is a default judgment. Unless you can prove they did not take due dilligence in having you served (and good luck with that impossible feet), the judgment is legal and binding.
Yes, a lender can file for a deficiency judgment in Indiana. The court has to approve the judgment in order to prosecute.
Simple answer: in the state of New Mexico, if you default on your vehicle loan, and are not able to bring the payments current, the lender has the right to take possession (to repossess) the vehicle. You can try to contact the lender and see if they will make some sort of arrangement. Unless you do this quickly, though, it is unlikely they will work with you, and you may be asked to surrender it voluntarily.
AS long as you are in DEFAULT on the contract, the lender can repo the collateral. Usually that also means have full coverage ins also. Read your contract again.
Yes. Once the original contract is in default the lender can begin repossession proceedings under the UCC laws. In the majority of US states the lender does not need to notify the borrower or obtain a replevin order from the court.
The laws for all US states are much the same. In MO. when a vehicle is repossessed by the lender due to a default in the terms of the contract the lender is required to sell the vehicle at public auction for the amount closests to its assessed value. If there is a discrepancy in the amount for which the vehicle is sold and the balance of the loan, the lender may pursue collection for that amount in the manner the law allows, which can include a lawsuit.
Yes, if the vehicle is not protected by the state's exemption amount. If the judgment is not by the lender who holds the lien on said vehicle it is unlikely that the judgment debtor would engage in such action especially if there are other means of enforcing the judgment writ, such as garnishment of wages or levy of a bank account. I don't understand what is the exemption amount?