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Yes and No. The Mandate of Palestine was merely the British Name for the land they occupied in the Southwestern Levantine region of the Middle East. There was no nation of Palestine or independent Governate of Palestine at any point in the prior 2000 years. When the Jewish population of the Mandate of Palestine declared independence, they used the name Israel to denote their country. The Arab residents of the British Mandate preferred to continue using the name Palestine to represent themselves. The majority of the Mandate's land ended up in Israeli hands in 1949, but some parts were under Arab control. It is these Arab areas that will likely form the basis of the Palestinian State.
The modern State of Israel came into existence in 1948. In 1940, the area where Israel predominantly sits (excluding the Golan Heights) was called the British Mandate of Palestine. The Mandate of Palestine was not a country, but a colony of the British Empire. What made a mandate different from a colony was that the British had an obligation to help the people living in the territory to form their own government and facilitate independence. In the specific case of the Mandate of Palestine, they were required to do this for the Jews and the Arabs together.
It's a country; countries are not popular or unpopular. Please resubmit in a clearer form.
Wait a second. Help me out here, and please take it slowly, because sometimes I get confused . . . If Palestine was declared a nation for Jews, and the Jewish nation has been a UN member for 62 years, then exactly what country are Erakat and Abbas and Ashrawhi trying so hard to get admitted to the UN now ?
The significance of the "Mandate of Heaven" in the Zhou dynasty in China is that it gave legitimacy to the form of government being established by determining whether an emperor was worthy of ruling the country.
The word mandate can be a noun and a verb. The noun form is an authoritative command. The verb form means to authorise.
That section is internationally recognized as a part of the sovereign state of Israel.It depends how the term "Palestine" is defined. If the question is referring to the former British Mandate of Palestine, then Jerusalem is de jure divided between the Sovereign State of Israel and the de jure claim of the State of Palestine.If you are specifically referring to the claim made by the State of Palestine, Jerusalem would form part of the general region of the West Bank. However, the State of Palestine has never had sovereign control of any part of Jerusalem.
Palestine liberation organization
what was the name of the series of invasions of palestine launched by christians from europe
It gave legitimacy to the form of government being established
The Jordan is a river in Palestine/Israel/the Lebanon.
I think it is a Mandate.