Both are correct: "I agree with you" would be used most often, but "I do agree with you" could be used for emphasis.
Both are correct , with different meaning. The former means "I believe you are entirely correct" and the latter means " I accept the terms you lay down."
"Uniquely bespoke" is a tautological statement.
He agrees with you. Or he is in agreement with you.
Short answer : Yes, if used as a compound object. If used as a subject of a verb, then change him to the pronoun " he ". It depends. "They want you and him to agree" is correct. The object forms of the pronouns are used. For example: They want ; they want you and him; they want you and him to agree. Also correct is "They did it for you and him." "You and him are going to agree" would not be not correct. The subject form is used : "You and he are going to agree." For example, you might write something like: "verbs always match nouns in number, and they usually come before the noun.
Yes, Almighty God is grammatically correct.
"That was wrong" is a grammatically correct sentence.
The statement "I agree with you" is correct. "Am" is not needed in this context because "agree" already indicates the present tense.
The correct statement is: "Are your children coming home?"
He agreed with You
Yes, "None of the children were hurt" is a grammatically correct statement.
The grammatically correct statement is "She does not have her book." In English, the verb "have" is used as an auxiliary verb in negative sentences, so the correct form is "have" instead of "has."
Yes, it's correct.
It should be "has the show begun?"
"Uniquely bespoke" is a tautological statement.
He agrees with you. Or he is in agreement with you.
no
Yes
Yes, "you ate your soup" is correct. Both as a statement and a question.