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Females are less likely to show the symptoms of hemophilia but in actuality are more likely to have the genetic mutation for hemophilia.
The reason they are less likely to show the symptoms is the fact that hemophilia is the result of a mutation on the X chromosome. Since females have two X chromosomes they likely have a chromosome that is not mutated as well. With the mutation normally being a recessive trait, the normal X chromosome is usually expressed instead. Since males only have one X chromosome, if the mutation for hemophilia is present, it will be expressed.
For the same reasons, the chances of a female having the mutation is greater (however still very small), simply because she has two X chromosomes.
What else can I help you with?
Why are men most likely to have hemophilia then females?
cus i say so ahahahahah
Why are males more likely than females to have hemophilia?
Males are more likely to have hemophilia because the condition is linked to the X chromosome, and males have only one X chromosome (inherited from their mother) paired with one Y chromosome. If that single X chromosome carries the hemophilia gene mutation, the male will express the disease. In contrast, females have two X chromosomes, so if one X carries the mutation, the other can often compensate, making it less likely for females to exhibit the disorder. This X-linked recessive inheritance pattern is why hemophilia predominantly affects males.
Who would be a sex-linked recessive defect?
Hemophilia, a blood clotting disorder, is an example of a sex-linked recessive defect. It occurs more commonly in males because the gene for hemophilia is located on the X chromosome. Females are usually carriers of the gene but are less likely to exhibit symptoms.
Are females less likely to become famous?
There is no supporting evidence that females are any less likely or more likely to become famous than males.
A recessive gene located on the X chromosome is the cause of hemophilia in affected individuals. Males are more likely to have hemophilia than females because?
Males only have one copy of the X chromosome
How come females don't suffer fomr hemophilia?
Females are much less likely to suffer from hemophilia because it is a recessive X linked genetic disorder. Women, having the chromosomal configuration of XX would need both X chromosomes to carry the marker for hemophilia because it is a recessive gene. Whereas men, with the chromosomal configuration of Xy do not have a "backup" X chromosome so if their only X chromosome has the hemophiliac trait, then that man will be a hemophiliac.
Why is hemophilia rarely expressed in females?
Because hemophilia is a disease linked to a recessive gene on the X-chromosome, females have another X-chromosome to block out the diseased one. However, males have only one X-chromosome, so they are more often subject to hemophilia.
How many alleles for hemophilia do females have?
females have 2 alleles for hemophilia, (X^hX^H) and (X^hX^h) if H is the normal allele and h is the recessive allele for hemophilia
What is the percentage of a person that can have hemophilia?
Hemophilia primarily affects males, with approximately 1 in 5,000 male births diagnosed with the condition. Women can be carriers of the gene, but they are less likely to exhibit symptoms due to having two X chromosomes, which can mitigate the effects. The percentage of the general population affected by hemophilia is around 0.01% to 0.02% for males, while carrier rates for females are higher, estimated at about 1 in 1,000.
Why does hemophilia does not follow the classic mendelian rule?
Hemophilia does not follow classic Mendelian inheritance patterns because it is an X-linked recessive disorder. This means that the gene responsible for hemophilia is located on the X chromosome, and males, having only one X chromosome, are more likely to express the condition if they inherit the affected allele. In contrast, females have two X chromosomes, so they would need to inherit two copies of the mutated gene to exhibit the disorder, making hemophilia less common in females. This results in a characteristic inheritance pattern that diverges from Mendelian ratios typically seen in autosomal traits.
Why is hemophilia more common in males than in females?
The genes associated with Hemophilia A and B are located on the X chromosome, which is one of the 2 sex chromosomes. For males, who have only 1 X chromosome, 1 altered copy of the gene in each cell is sufficient to cause hemophilia. In females, who have 2 X chromosomes, a mutation would have to occur in both copies of the gene to cause hemophilia. Since it is unlikely that females will have 2 altered copies of this gene it is therefor very rare for females to have hemophilia.
Why is there a difference in the numbers of alleles for hemophilia and colorblindness between males and females?
females have xand males dont
