Want this question answered?
Syria was under the mandate of France after W 1.
After World War I, the French received a colonial mandate over Greater Syria, which became the countries of Syria and Lebanon.
In 1923, as part of the outcome of World War I, France was awarded with the "Mandate of Syria" by the League of Nations. This mandate empowered France to administer and otherwise control affairs in this area of the Middle East, which in fact consisted of portions of both modern-day Syria and Lebanon.
Syria at that time was not independent.
After World War, the League of Nations issued mandates for the governance of certain areas formerly ruled by Germany and the Ottoman Empire. In the middle east, the British received a mandate for Palestine, Transjordan (Jordan) and Mesopotamia (Iraq). The French received a mandate for Syria and Lebanon.
ww2
Lebanon and Syria were part of the Frenchmandate.
The actual conflict in Syria can lead to a regional war by spreading throughout its border to Turkey, Iraq, Lebanon, and if Iran gets attacked, then there could be a World War 3.
the League of Nations did
France
Well kinda, Syria was fist given to the French who let it become independent, it was part of the Ottoman empire before WWI, a Muslim empire that at that point had control of almost all middle east Asia, to get back on target, no not after WWI but later.
In Arabic, there is a term for the territory currently occupied by Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine, and Jordan. It is called "Bilaad Sham" (بلاد شام) and usually translated as "Greater Syria" since Damascus was the most powerful city in Bilaad Sham. There is another name (with minority usage) for Bilaad Sham in English which is Syria-Palestine. This name comes from the fact that the two dominant Arab population centers of Bilaad Sham (prior to the Arab-Israeli War of 1948-9) were in the French Mandate of Syria and the British Mandate of Palestine.