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It was a way of homogenizing the country and removing regional diversity, which makes governance more effective. Similar practices have occurred in other nations at different times (France under Louis XIV, Myanmar, Turkey under Atatürk, etc.) Additionally, the more diverse groups (such as the Catalans and the Basques) were often the most resistant to Franco's government and laws, so this had the added bonus of being a "communal reprimand" for their defiance and individuality.

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Q: Why did franco outlaw all languages except castilian spanish?
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