Why did the 16th century belong to Spain?

Anonymous

∙ 12y ago

Updated: 8/20/2019

Wealth taken from the New World led to a vast increase in Spanish wealth. This allowed them to raise funds for a large military and increase their internal production.

Wiki User

∙ 12y ago

What else can I help you with?

Who did Spain trade with in the 16th century?

Spain primarily traded with other European States in the 16th century, like the Austrian Empire or France.

In which century did Spain invade Mexico?

16th century (1521).

Who dominated 16th century exploration?

Spain

In the century Spain's comedies focused on themes of love and honor?

16th

The exploration and exploitation of the Americas in the 16th century was dominated by?

In the 16th century, Spain dominated the exploration and exploitation of the Americas. The Spanish Empire was one of the largest empires in history.

For what country did conquistadores seize land in the 16th century?

Spain

Which European countries colonized where in the Americas?

Spain did, on the 16th century.

How did the influx of silver affect Spain in the 16th century?

Silver

Who colonized Ecuador?

Spain colonized Ecuador during the 15th and 16th Century.

Which country dominated the exploration of the new world in the 15th and 16th century?

Spain.

What country claimed the area now known as the Philippines in the early 16th century?

Spain claimed the area now known as the Philippines in the early 16th century, specifically in 1521 when Ferdinand Magellan arrived and claimed the islands for Spain.

Why is el salvador a spanish-speaking country?

Spain conquered this country in the 16th century

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