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If you're talking about for the purposes of determining representation in the House of Representatives, the northern states specfically did not want that, as it would have allowed the southern states to dominate.

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Q: Why did the north want every slave to be counted?
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How did the North feel about the Fugitive Slave Laws?

North dislike The Fugitive Slave Law, because that did not support slavery, and therefore did not want to send escaped slaves back to the south. North brought the slavery issue to their own doorstep , and gave the runawys a heroic victim status.


How did the north and south view slavery?

The north was against slavery, and the south favored it.


Why did the akwamu nation enter the slave trade?

because they want to be rich and they had no ideal slave.


Under the three-fifths compromise each enslaved person was counted as three fifths of a free person for what purposes?

The northern states wanted to tax the southern states, so if they counted the slave population as part of the white community, then they could get more money. On the other hand, the southern states wanted representation in the government, so they wanted slaves to count as people so that they could have more representatives in Congress. The north didn't want the south to have more representatives, and the south didn't want to be taxed, so a man named Roger Sherman came up with the 3/5 Comprimise to satisfy both the north and the south. Or just simply: how to count population for the purposes of taxation and representation in the House of Representatives.


What is the history of the three fifths compromise?

"The three fifths compromise was a compromise between south and north. They were deciding on how much a slave should be worth. South didn't want it to count as any and north did. So the government decided to make them worth three-fifths." This answer is completely backwards. Abolitionists wanted slaves counted as zero for apportionment. No one ever said they were only 3/5 of a person. The South, not the North, wanted to count ALL their slaves because they would get a disproportionate amount of congressional representatives to their favor, which would allow slavery to continue unhindered. Another argument was to force the South to acknowledge slaves as people if they wanted them counted, so if they were people, how could they continue to own them as slaves?

Related questions

Why did north want every slave to be counted?

If you're talking about for the purposes of determining representation in the House of Representatives, the northern states specfically did not want that, as it would have allowed the southern states to dominate.


How would states like Virginia who had a large slave population want slaves to be counted in the population for determining representation in congress?

The same as every other person.


Why did the north oppose the war with Mexico?

the whigs did not want conquered territory to become slave states


What was the 3 to 5 ratio for counting slaves?

It was a result of a compromise between the North and the South. The North wanted slaves to be counted for taxation purposes in the South to bring in more revenue for the federal government which was something the South did not want. But the South wanted to count slaves towards in population in terms of representation so they could have more members in the House of Representative which the North did not want. In the end they settled upon the idea that each slave counted as 3/5 of a person, both in terms of taxation and representation.


Did North Carolina want to count slaves as population?

Slaves were not counted in the population census in 1860 or 1870.


Why was the fugitive slave law unpopular in the north?

It was unpopular in the north because they did not support slavery, and therefore did not want to send escaped slaves back to the south


Which amendment were slaves counted as only three fifths of a person?

The "Three-Fifths Compromise" was not a constitutional amendment, but rather part of the actual Constitution written in 1787 (Article 1, Section 2, Paragraph 3), as an attempt to get both slave states, who wanted slaves to be counted as people because of taxation reasons, and non-slave states, who didn't want slaves to be counted as people, to ratify the document.


Why did the North want Congress to control trade and that the US should continue with slave trading?

because they are stupid idiots


What did elbridge gerry from Massachusetts think about slave trade?

He did not want slave representation, he said that since slaves were property in the south, just as cattle and horses in the north, they should not be represented.


How did the North feel about the Fugitive Slave Laws?

North dislike The Fugitive Slave Law, because that did not support slavery, and therefore did not want to send escaped slaves back to the south. North brought the slavery issue to their own doorstep , and gave the runawys a heroic victim status.


Why did the southern states not want slaves counted as residents in their states?

Actually it would have been helpful to have each slave counted as a full person because that would have meant more representatives in Congress. It was the northern colonies that didn't want the slaves counted as whole person. The south all ready had the largest States and to add the slave population in would have made them very powerful. By 1860 there would be 6 million slaves in the south so counting them as 3/4ths of a person wasn't great, but better than counting them as a whole person.


What did the three fifth compromise at the constitutional convention?

It was used to determine population of states. Southern states had 9 million slaves and the smaller states didn't want them counted in the population so each slave was counted as 3/4 of a person in the census.