Why do they call French fries French fries?

Answer 1

Concensus of opinion seems to place the origin in Belgium, c.1680. Although cooked in a French style (pommes de terre frites), the term 'French fries' seems to have caught on with foreign visitors after the French annexation of French-speaking Belgium in the early 1800s.

Early references to Vlaamse frieten ('Flemish fries') hint at a possible origin in the Netherlands.

Answer 2

they originated in France and have been fried the same way as in France

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The origins:Belgians based on a family manuscript of 1680 say that they already cut up potatoes and fryed them. In France the fries (pommes frites or commonly Frites) are born on the bridges of Paris in 1789 in full French Revolution and became popular.

In 1830, Paris (France) and Brussels (belgium) fond of Frites (Fries). Even if Thomas Jefferson mentioned already "fried potatoes in the French manner" following his stay in France from 1784 to 1789, the fries have been popularized in America after the return of soldiers from the First World War of France and Belgium (where French is the official language), hence the name "French Fries". The real name in French is FRITES.

Answer 3

In cuisine recipes, 'to french something' is to cut it in into slivers or thin strips before cooking. You are just doing that when slicing potatoes before frying them, so this is not an indication of origin, but of the preparation method. The French themselves do not call their fries 'French', but simply 'frites'.

Answer 4

In a cuisine context, "to french something" is to cut it in small slices or parts, to allow for faster cooking. The French themselves do not call their fries "French", even though the origin of french fries is disputed between France and southern Belgium.

Answer 5

According to wikipedia, the term French fries came from a White House dinner in 1802 when Thomas Jefferson had "potatoes served in the French manner."