It tells you how many times the machine multiplys force
Ideal mechanical advantage is the mechanical advantage when there is no friction. It is the mechanical advantage when the efficiency of the pullefy system is 100%. It is a constant for that system of pulleys. Therfore it is not affected by increasing or decreasing the load. But actual mechanical advantage will be less than this ideal mechanical advantage due to friction. In other words the efficiency will be less than 100 %. If the efficiency is 80%, it implies 20% is wasted due to friction while lifting a load. If we increase the load the friction also increases and hence the efficiency will decrease with the load.
Because there is always going to be friction, the efficiency of any machine will always be less then 100 percent.
distance over which the force is applied ________________________________ Distance over which the load was moved or MA= Effort Force _________ Load force OR MA= Length of Load arm ____________________X Weight/mass Length of Effort arm
This is because the actual mechanical advantage is the actual calculation found after dividing the effort force by the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is what many people would call and estimate. When estimating mechanical advantage, the numbers are always rounded. This makes actual mechanical advantage less. Sources: Science teacher ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ The answer above is incorrect. The ideal mechanical advantage (IMA) is usually less than the mechanical advantage (MA) in a given machine because of the friction acting on the machine. There will always be some frictional resistance that increases the effort necessary to do the work.
Your question has a basic flaw. With a system of pulleys the ratio cannot be 10, it can be only a power of two: 2, 4, 8, 16... There is no mechanical advantage, it's only a matter of convenience: using a force of 50 lbs one can lift a weight of 400 lbs, but in order to do that one has to pull the rope for a distance equal to 8 times the lifting height.
At perfect 100% efficiency, the Actual Mechanical Advantage should equal the Ideal Mechanical Advantage.
the difference between the real mechanical advantage and the speed ratio is -the real mechanical advantage gets affected by friction so the real mechanical advantage gets smaller than the mechanical advantage you calculate. so the real mechanical advantage gets smaller than the speed ratio (because of the friction) and that's why the efficiency never gets 100% efficient (efficiency ; mechanical advantage/ speed ratio x 100(%))
When a machine is 100% efficient, theoretical and actual MAs are the same. Please let me know when you run across one of these.
mechanical advantage= output force over input force times 100
Efficiency= Mechanical Advantage Speed ratio X100 Mechanical advantage divided by speed radio X (times) 100
No. Nothing mechanical can ever have a 100% efficiency by any physical evaluation.
an ideal machine
well the advantage of that is pie, not math pie but pie that you eat
The assumed efficiency is 100% without any friction
4
No. A simple machine such as a lever could quite easily give a mechanical advantage of 10, 100 or more, or could even be less than 1.
Ideal mechanical advantage is the mechanical advantage when there is no friction. It is the mechanical advantage when the efficiency of the pullefy system is 100%. It is a constant for that system of pulleys. Therfore it is not affected by increasing or decreasing the load. But actual mechanical advantage will be less than this ideal mechanical advantage due to friction. In other words the efficiency will be less than 100 %. If the efficiency is 80%, it implies 20% is wasted due to friction while lifting a load. If we increase the load the friction also increases and hence the efficiency will decrease with the load.