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Q: Why is mechanical advantage never 100 percent?
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What would happen to a pulley system if the load were increased?

Ideal mechanical advantage is the mechanical advantage when there is no friction. It is the mechanical advantage when the efficiency of the pullefy system is 100%. It is a constant for that system of pulleys. Therfore it is not affected by increasing or decreasing the load. But actual mechanical advantage will be less than this ideal mechanical advantage due to friction. In other words the efficiency will be less than 100 %. If the efficiency is 80%, it implies 20% is wasted due to friction while lifting a load. If we increase the load the friction also increases and hence the efficiency will decrease with the load.


Why a normal machine could not have the mechanical efficiency of 100?

Because there is always going to be friction, the efficiency of any machine will always be less then 100 percent.


How do you calculate the mechanical advantage of any machine?

distance over which the force is applied ________________________________ Distance over which the load was moved or MA= Effort Force _________ Load force OR MA= Length of Load arm ____________________X Weight/mass Length of Effort arm


How does the size of a ideal mechanical advantage compares to the mechanical advantage?

This is because the actual mechanical advantage is the actual calculation found after dividing the effort force by the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is what many people would call and estimate. When estimating mechanical advantage, the numbers are always rounded. This makes actual mechanical advantage less. Sources: Science teacher ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ The answer above is incorrect. The ideal mechanical advantage (IMA) is usually less than the mechanical advantage (MA) in a given machine because of the friction acting on the machine. There will always be some frictional resistance that increases the effort necessary to do the work.


With a pulley system a force of only 50 lb can lift a 500-lb weight What is the mechanical advantage if this system is 100 percent efficient?

Your question has a basic flaw. With a system of pulleys the ratio cannot be 10, it can be only a power of two: 2, 4, 8, 16... There is no mechanical advantage, it's only a matter of convenience: using a force of 50 lbs one can lift a weight of 400 lbs, but in order to do that one has to pull the rope for a distance equal to 8 times the lifting height.

Related questions

If a machine was 100 percent efficient how would the AMA compare to the IMA?

At perfect 100% efficiency, the Actual Mechanical Advantage should equal the Ideal Mechanical Advantage.


What is the difference between real mechanical advantage and speed ratio?

the difference between the real mechanical advantage and the speed ratio is -the real mechanical advantage gets affected by friction so the real mechanical advantage gets smaller than the mechanical advantage you calculate. so the real mechanical advantage gets smaller than the speed ratio (because of the friction) and that's why the efficiency never gets 100% efficient (efficiency ; mechanical advantage/ speed ratio x 100(%))


Distinguish between theoretical mechanical advantage and actual mechanical advantage How will these compare if a machine is 100 percent efficient?

When a machine is 100% efficient, theoretical and actual MAs are the same. Please let me know when you run across one of these.


How is the mechanical advantage of a simple machine calculated?

mechanical advantage= output force over input force times 100


How do you measure efficiency?

Efficiency= Mechanical Advantage Speed ratio X100 Mechanical advantage divided by speed radio X (times) 100


Can a car have a 100 percent efficiency?

No. Nothing mechanical can ever have a 100% efficiency by any physical evaluation.


What would a machine that had 100 percent mechanical efficiency be called?

an ideal machine


The mechanical advantage of a machine is always greater than 1?

well the advantage of that is pie, not math pie but pie that you eat


What efficiency is assumed when calculating the ideal mechanical advantage?

The assumed efficiency is 100% without any friction


A 100 newton force applied to a machine lifts a 400 N object what is the actual mechanical advantage of this machine?

4


Is it true a simple machine is one that always gives a mechanical advantage of 2?

No. A simple machine such as a lever could quite easily give a mechanical advantage of 10, 100 or more, or could even be less than 1.


What would happen to a pulley system if the load were increased?

Ideal mechanical advantage is the mechanical advantage when there is no friction. It is the mechanical advantage when the efficiency of the pullefy system is 100%. It is a constant for that system of pulleys. Therfore it is not affected by increasing or decreasing the load. But actual mechanical advantage will be less than this ideal mechanical advantage due to friction. In other words the efficiency will be less than 100 %. If the efficiency is 80%, it implies 20% is wasted due to friction while lifting a load. If we increase the load the friction also increases and hence the efficiency will decrease with the load.