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Because the ruling French and British political establishment were first and foremost worried with the Soviet threat - and at that time, fascism was considered by many conservatives the only feasible way to avoid a communist revolution. Therefore, it has been speculated that the (in)famous appeasement policy that those countries followed was targeted at creating a strong Germany that could face the Soviet Union. But, with the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact of August 1939 (the No-Aggresion Pact between the Soviet Union and the German Reich), all hopes of playing both totalitarian powers against each other vanished.

It's just a theory, but it explains perfectly some Franco-British policies that at first sight may look illogical. An excellent essay by F. William Engdahl exploring the question at lenght is to be found here; if you are really interested in this topic it's a must-read:

http://www.engdahl.oilgeopolitics.net/History/MacKinder/mackinder.html

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Q: Why might British and French policies during the 1930's have encouraged German aggression?
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