Want this question answered?
== ==
I know this answer, because i am studying for an AP us history exam. The answe is 0. Most families in the antebellum south (88%) owned no slaves at all!
Slaves working, horse-drawn carriages, antebellum architecture, steam-powered trains, and paddle-wheeled riverboats were common sights during America's first and only Civil War.
Slaves.
James II of England started white slavery in the Americas. The slaves were taken from Ireland and accounted for the majority of slaves in the Americas during that time period. During the late 1600s, Irish slaves cost less than African slaves.
ghh
they just did
Malaria
White familes in the south during the antebellum time did not own any slaves. At least the majority of whits did not own any
Malaria
malaria
== ==
The ownership of slaves became concentrated in the hands of wealthy plantation owners, leading to a small percentage of the population owning a large number of slaves. This concentration of slave ownership contributed to the economic and social divisions in the antebellum South.
Yes! Many times especailly to the Spanish and Chris Columbus the Indians were slaves. -Roundrupert they were also during the antebellum period. but then they were to hard to ketp so they stop and got African American slaves.-geo Lopez
No, a large majority of the southern population did not own slaves. In fact, only a small percentage of white families in the southern states owned slaves during the antebellum period.
Dred Scott, Frederick Douglass, and Nat Turner were all antebellum slaves, but they were enslaved or freed very close to the Civil War.
If you are referring to the slaves of the antebellum South, the main economic activity was cotton farming.