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Because at the time the British Mandate expired in 1948, and the territory of the mandate

was divided into one area over which the Jews would have administrative control and

another area over which the Arabs would have administrative control, the authorities

of the Jewish-administered section declared their area to be an independent sovereign

state, whereas the authorities of the Arab-administered section didn't do the same with

their section.

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Q: Why was Palestine not regarded as a state?
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