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It tells you how many times the machine multiplys force

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What would happen to a pulley system if the load were increased?

Ideal mechanical advantage is the mechanical advantage when there is no friction. It is the mechanical advantage when the efficiency of the pullefy system is 100%. It is a constant for that system of pulleys. Therfore it is not affected by increasing or decreasing the load. But actual mechanical advantage will be less than this ideal mechanical advantage due to friction. In other words the efficiency will be less than 100 %. If the efficiency is 80%, it implies 20% is wasted due to friction while lifting a load. If we increase the load the friction also increases and hence the efficiency will decrease with the load.


Why a normal machine could not have the mechanical efficiency of 100?

Because there is always going to be friction, the efficiency of any machine will always be less then 100 percent.


How do you calculate the mechanical advantage of any machine?

distance over which the force is applied ________________________________ Distance over which the load was moved or MA= Effort Force _________ Load force OR MA= Length of Load arm ____________________X Weight/mass Length of Effort arm


How does the size of a ideal mechanical advantage compares to the mechanical advantage?

This is because the actual mechanical advantage is the actual calculation found after dividing the effort force by the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is what many people would call and estimate. When estimating mechanical advantage, the numbers are always rounded. This makes actual mechanical advantage less. Sources: Science teacher ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ The answer above is incorrect. The ideal mechanical advantage (IMA) is usually less than the mechanical advantage (MA) in a given machine because of the friction acting on the machine. There will always be some frictional resistance that increases the effort necessary to do the work.


With a pulley system a force of only 50 lb can lift a 500-lb weight What is the mechanical advantage if this system is 100 percent efficient?

Your question has a basic flaw. With a system of pulleys the ratio cannot be 10, it can be only a power of two: 2, 4, 8, 16... There is no mechanical advantage, it's only a matter of convenience: using a force of 50 lbs one can lift a weight of 400 lbs, but in order to do that one has to pull the rope for a distance equal to 8 times the lifting height.

Related Questions

If a machine was 100 percent efficient how would the AMA compare to the IMA?

If a machine was 100 percent efficient, the AMA would be equal to the IMA. This is because in an ideal scenario where the machine loses no energy to friction or other factors, the AMA (actual mechanical advantage) would be the same as the IMA (ideal mechanical advantage).


Distinguish between theoretical mechanical advantage and actual mechanical advantage How will these compare if a machine is 100 percent efficient?

Theoretical mechanical advantage is the ratio of the input force to the output force without considering friction, while actual mechanical advantage includes frictional losses in the machine. If a machine is 100 percent efficient, there will be no frictional losses, so the theoretical and actual mechanical advantages will be the same, resulting in a 1:1 ratio of input force to output force.


What is the difference between real mechanical advantage and speed ratio?

the difference between the real mechanical advantage and the speed ratio is -the real mechanical advantage gets affected by friction so the real mechanical advantage gets smaller than the mechanical advantage you calculate. so the real mechanical advantage gets smaller than the speed ratio (because of the friction) and that's why the efficiency never gets 100% efficient (efficiency ; mechanical advantage/ speed ratio x 100(%))


How is the mechanical advantage of a simple machine calculated?

mechanical advantage= output force over input force times 100


How do you measure efficiency?

Efficiency= Mechanical Advantage Speed ratio X100 Mechanical advantage divided by speed radio X (times) 100


A 100 newton force applied to a machine lifts a 400 N object what is the actual mechanical advantage of this machine?

The actual mechanical advantage is calculated as the ratio of the output force to the input force. In this case, the output force is 400 N (the weight lifted) and the input force is 100 N. Therefore, the actual mechanical advantage is 400 N / 100 N = 4.


Can a car have a 100 percent efficiency?

No. Nothing mechanical can ever have a 100% efficiency by any physical evaluation.


What is the mechanical advantage of a lever system that can lift 100 N with an effort force of only 25 N?

The mechanical advantage of the lever system is 4. This is calculated by dividing the load force (100 N) by the effort force (25 N), resulting in a mechanical advantage of 4. This means that the lever system multiplies the input force by 4 to lift the load.


What would a machine that had 100 percent mechanical efficiency be called?

A machine with 100 percent mechanical efficiency would be called an ideal machine, as it would have no energy losses due to friction, heat, or other inefficiencies.


What is the mechanical efficiency of a inclined plane?

The mechanical efficiency of an inclined plane is the ratio of the output force to the input force, taking into account friction and other factors that may reduce efficiency. It is calculated as the ratio of the ideal mechanical advantage to the actual mechanical advantage. A perfectly efficient inclined plane would have a mechanical efficiency of 100%, but in reality, efficiency will be less than 100% due to energy losses.


What efficiency is assumed when calculating the ideal mechanical advantage?

The assumed efficiency is 100% without any friction


If a device has an ideal MA of 4 but an actual MA of 3 what is the efficiency?

Efficiency can be calculated using the formula: Efficiency (%) = (Actual Mechanical Advantage / Ideal Mechanical Advantage) × 100. In this case, the efficiency would be (3 / 4) × 100 = 75%. Therefore, the device has an efficiency of 75%.