There are a few ways this could happen.
1) First, if the father has Acquired Hemophilia, it is not genetic and thus would not be passed to his daughters.
2) Adoption - A father only passes the genes to his daughters if they were in fact conceived with his DNA. (obviously there are other ways that daughters may not have been conceived by the father that raises them, but I;ll leave those to your imagination)
3) While being almost impossible (similar odds to being struck by lightening 5 separate times and surviving all 5) a random mutation could in theory correct the existing mutation.
4) Assuming the father has genetic hemophilia and was the sperm donar for the daughters in question, it is actually likely that the tests were wrong. Often females can test erroneously negative for being carriers until their early to mid 20s.
The gene for hemophilia is found on the 'X' human chromosome. However it is a recessive gene so if a woman (who has two 'XX' chromosomes) has one bad 'X' and one good 'X' she will not have hemophilia but will be a carrier .If she has female children and their father is not a hemophiliac, then half of her daughters may carry the bad 'X' chromosome but non will manifest the disease.However, if her children are male then her sons will have an 'X' chromosome inherited from her and a 'Y' chromosome inherited form the father and there is a 50% chance that the 'X' chromosome inherited will be the bad one. If the son inherits the bad 'X' he will be a hemophiliac and if he lives to father any daughters then all these daughters will be hemophilia carriers (because they must inherit his (bad) 'X' chromosome).It is possible for a woman to manifest hemophilia if the mother is a carrier and the father is a hemophiliac. In this case it is possible for a daughter to inherit the bad 'X' from the father and the mother's bad 'X' giving the daughter two bad 'X' chromosomes.
The woman's father being unaffected means that he does not carry the gene for hemophilia on his X chromosome. Therefore, the woman does not have the gene and cannot pass it on to her son. Her son will not inherit hemophilia from his uncle.
Since the gene for Hemophilia is carried on the X chromosome and males pass only their Y chromosome onto their sons, no their sons should not have hemophilia. Of course all daughters of a male with hemophilia will be carriers of the mutation since they with receive his X chromosome, not the Y.
Hemophilia is sex linked. Males inherit from their mother, daughters are carriers if the defective gene is inherited from one of either parent. A female must inherit two copies of the defective allele to have hemophilia .
Her father has to have hemophilia as well, and the mother is a carrier or also has hemophilia. So if we pretend that the hemophilia gene is "x", you need to have "xx" to have hemophilia. The father must have the genotype "Yx" and the mother has the have "Xx" or "xx".
First of all, Spontaneous mutations account for 1/3 of the cases of genetic hemophilia. This means that 1 out of 3 people born with hemophilia have no family history of the trait prior to that person. In the scenario you are describing, you are assuming that there was a carrier when in fact, there is a good chance that there was not. There is also a chance that the child born with hemophilia received the mutation from his mother. Frequently women will have the mutation on one X chromosome but not their second. Depending od the individual case, the mother could carry the gene but not be symptomatic. It is impossible for the son to have received the gene from his father. Since in order for a boy to actually be a boy, he must receive his father's Y chromosome and not his X chromosome, a son cannot receive the affected X chromosome from his father. Also, in order for a father to pass the trait on through daughters, the father himself would be a hemophiliac.
the X chromosome
Grand Duchess ANASTASIA and her sisters were probably carriers of the hemophilia gene but did not suffer from the effects of hemophilia. Males suffer from hemophilia. In rare cases girls do suffer but that is only when both parents carry the mutated gene
Hemophilia is typically an X-linked recessive condition. If a mother has hemophilia, she carries two copies of the hemophilia allele on her X chromosomes (since females have two X chromosomes). Therefore, any male offspring will inherit one of her X chromosomes, which will carry the hemophilia allele, leading to him being affected by the condition. The male will inherit his Y chromosome from his father, which does not carry the hemophilia gene.
There are no hard answers to this, it depends strictly on luck. The statistics are though not very good for their children. Statisically the couple have a chance of having a normal son, a daughter that is a carrier for hemophilia, a daughter with hemophilia and a son with hemophia.
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the gene responsible for the condition is located on the X chromosome. Since the baby daughter has hemophilia, she must have inherited one affected X chromosome from her father. Therefore, the father must have the genotype X^hY, where X^h represents the X chromosome carrying the hemophilia gene, indicating that he is affected by the condition.
Haemophilia is a recessive, X-based disorder. The woman in your question is a carrier, meaning she has the defective gene, but isn't bothered by it. Therefor, the woman is of the type 'Xx'. The man is of the type 'XY', not carrying the defective gene. Their children can then be: XX, xX, XY, xY. This means that their daughters won't be affected by it, but might carry it, and their sons either not carry it at all, or carry it and be haemophilic.