In 1900, voting rights in the United States were primarily limited to white men who met certain property requirements, as many states enforced laws that restricted voting based on race, ethnicity, and financial status. Most African American men were effectively disenfranchised due to discriminatory practices such as literacy tests and poll taxes, particularly in Southern states. Additionally, immigrant men, especially those from Europe, could vote if they were naturalized citizens. Overall, the electorate was predominantly white and male, reflecting the social and political inequalities of the time.
Between 1750 and 1900, the percentage of men who could vote varied significantly by country and region. In the United States, for example, voting rights were primarily limited to white property-owning men, which meant only about 15-20% of the population could vote at the beginning of this period. In the United Kingdom, the Reform Acts gradually expanded voting rights, with the percentage of eligible male voters rising from around 3% in 1832 to approximately 60% by 1884. Overall, the percentage of men who could vote during this period was generally low and heavily influenced by property and class restrictions.
They couldn't vote in any colonies. They didnt have dreedom to vote and neither did women. The only people who could vote where whitemen. Nothing else.
Around 2/3 of the male population could vote, anyone over 21, sane and not in prison, the guy who did it before was clearly a tw*t and wrong x
Men could vote in the Massachusetts Bay Colony.
Only Men could vote because they had experience with military
middle class men and rich men not women
Between 1750 and 1900, the percentage of men who could vote varied significantly by country and region. In the United States, for example, voting rights were primarily limited to white property-owning men, which meant only about 15-20% of the population could vote at the beginning of this period. In the United Kingdom, the Reform Acts gradually expanded voting rights, with the percentage of eligible male voters rising from around 3% in 1832 to approximately 60% by 1884. Overall, the percentage of men who could vote during this period was generally low and heavily influenced by property and class restrictions.
They couldn't vote in any colonies. They didnt have dreedom to vote and neither did women. The only people who could vote where whitemen. Nothing else.
Only the men that were rich could vote, women could not vote.
In ancient Athens "all of the men voted on the laws for the city.when each man in the city could vote on the laws"what kind of government is this called?
Around 2/3 of the male population could vote, anyone over 21, sane and not in prison, the guy who did it before was clearly a tw*t and wrong x
Women could not vote. Only free, white men over 21 who owned land were qualified.
yes both men and women could vote.
Men could vote in the Massachusetts Bay Colony.
because at that time balck men where slaves and could not vote
only men could vote in the colony.
Men