0
What else can I help you with?
Does an ideal machine would have an efficiency greater than one?
No, an efficiency greater than one would not be possible, since that would violate a very fundamental law of physics: conservation of energy. The efficiency of an "ideal machine" would be one, in many cases; the efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine would be less than one.
Describe why a high-efficiency machine is more desirable thana low-efficiency machine?
A high efficiency machine will produce more of what is it that you want with the same power as the low efficiency one. In other words, for a low efficiency machine do as much as a high efficiency one, you have to give it more power (energy).
Is a ideal machine has an efficiency of less than one equal to one greater than one?
ideal machines have mechanical efficeincy equal to 1 (100% efficient) since efficiency is the ratio of the power output to the power input
Why is a high efficiency machine is more desirable than a low efficiency machine?
A high efficiency machine will produce more of what is it that you want with the same power as the low efficiency one. In other words, for a low efficiency machine do as much as a high efficiency one, you have to give it more power (energy).
Why is it that efficiency of a machine is less than 1?
The efficiency is always less than one because some of the energy is always useless for what you want. Most wasted energy eventually turns into heat. therefore the efficiency is like a percentage with 1 being 100% a device can't be 100% efficient as some energy is wasted. To work out the efficiency of a device you need to do the total useful energy produced divided by the total energy that is inputted into the device
If the output force is less than the input lnput force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage is less than one?
Yes, that is correct. When the output force is less than the input force in a simple machine, the mechanical advantage is less than one. This means that the machine does not multiply the input force, but rather acts as a force multiplier, allowing the user to apply less force over a longer distance to achieve the same work.
Can a machine be more than 100 percent efficient?
100% efficiency would mean that the machine is able to transform energy from one form into another without any loss of energy from the system in the process. For it to have greater than 100% efficiency, it would have to somehow generate additional energy, not contained in the system, in the process, and this is not possible.
How does a multiple tape Turing machine differ from a single tape Turing machine in terms of computational power and efficiency?
A multiple tape Turing machine has more than one tape, allowing it to perform multiple operations simultaneously. This gives it more computational power and efficiency compared to a single tape Turing machine, which can only perform one operation at a time.
Why efficiency of class c amplifier is high?
It conducts for less than one half cycle of the input.
If the output force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage less than one?
it means the mechanical advantage is greater.
If the input force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage is less than one?
it means the mechanical advantage is greater.
Does washing machine use less or more water than hand washing?
If you run the washing machine only when it is full, then it should use less water than washing it by hand. If you run the washing machine for one or two garments- you will be using more water than if washing it by hand.
