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On a exclusive agency does the agency get the listing and selling commission even if another agency sells?
The Exclusive Agency listing authorizes the listing broker, as exclusive agent, to offer cooperation and compensation on blanket unilateral bases, but also reserves to the seller the general right to sell the property on an unlimited or restrictive basis.Unless the buyers agency is a member within the same Multiple Listing Service, the buyers agent should be certain to get a commission agreement in writing from the listing broker, prior to writing an offer to purchase. Without this agreement, the listing broker does not have to pay out a coop commission.
Is a Deed of Agreement regarding a Reservation Fee valid without any signatures?
A Deed of Agreement typically requires signatures from the parties involved to be considered valid and enforceable. Without signatures, the intent to be bound by the terms may not be legally established, which can lead to disputes over its validity. However, in some cases, an agreement may still be enforceable if there is clear evidence of mutual assent and performance by the parties. It's essential to consult legal counsel for specific situations.
Does a contact has to signed by both parties for it to be in agreement?
Yes, a contract typically requires the agreement and signatures of both parties to be legally binding. This mutual consent signifies that both parties understand and accept the terms outlined in the contract. Without the signatures, it may be difficult to enforce the agreement or prove that both parties intended to enter into the contract. However, in some cases, an agreement can be considered valid even without a signature if there is clear evidence of mutual assent.
Do i have to create a written rental agreement to rent out my property?
You probably don't have to (landlord/tenant laws vary by state), but you would be really stupid to rent property without a written agreement.
Is it legal for property management to sign a tenant lease agreement as the landlord or landowner without the landowners permission or knowledge?
If there is no agreement between the landowner and the property manager that gives the property manager authority to sign in the name of the landowner, and no request for permission to do so, then the act of the property manager executing a lease agreement with a tenant might not be legal.
Is it legal for property management to sign a lease agreement as the landowner without the landowners permission?
Absolutely not! Not without your written/signed consent. If Property Management did so, it seems you would have had to sign a Property Management Agreement with them that gave them that authority. You would read over the agreement you signed when you signed on with the management services.
Can you claim a claim of right to a property if you were living on the property without a lease by agreement of the homeowner?
No. "by agreement of the property owner" are the key words here. Even though there was no written lease, you had the oral permission of the property owner to use the property. Therefore, you use of the property was not hostile, and fails the third prong of the adverse possession test. (MUENCH v. OXLEY, 90 Wn.2d 637 (provides that a person claiming adverse possession must use the property without the owner's permission)).
If you put up a horse walking machine on leased property can you take it with you when you leave?
Anything that is made a part of the property (not portable) is then usually considered part of the property and as such not to be removed without prior written agreement. Portable equipment is not considered part of the property and can usually be removed unless a prior written agreement exists to the contrary.
Can one tenant terminate a month-to-month rental agreement in order to keep out another cohabitant on the lease agreement without the consent of the other tenant and still reside in the property?
No, only the owner of the property would be able to break the agreement assuming the landlord had valid reason(s) for taking the action.
If I pay taxes on property that has other heirs can I sell this property without their knowledge?
Generally, if you co-own property with other heirs, you cannot sell it without their knowledge and consent, as all owners have a legal interest in the property. Selling a property typically requires the agreement of all parties involved, unless you have a legal provision or agreement that allows you to do so. Additionally, the other heirs may have rights to the property that cannot be ignored. It's advisable to consult with a legal professional to understand your specific situation and the implications of selling shared property.
Can a parent deed his property without signatures of other siblings?
If the parent owns the property they can convey it to the grantee of their choice.If the parent owns the property they can convey it to the grantee of their choice.If the parent owns the property they can convey it to the grantee of their choice.If the parent owns the property they can convey it to the grantee of their choice.
Can a person hold another persons registered personal property without some kind of breach of contract or failure to comply with mutual agreement?
No. Property of any sort cannot be held or restricted unless a prior agreement has been made by both parties.
