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It means that the person involved in a particular criminal activity did not have or lacked the required state of mind at the time the crime was actually committed.
In other words they did it with no intention, no recklessness, no carelessness and/or no dishonesty.
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∙ 12y ago
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Is Georgia a non recourse debt state?
"Is Georgia a non recourse debt state?" Since Florida is not a recourse state, and Florida adopted its laws from Georgia, Georgia must not be a recourse state.
Is Florida a judicial or non judicial state for foreclosures?
judicial Florida is a judicial foreclosure state
What does non white mean?
Any race that is not Caucasian
Why is the immunity of state from suits is considered as the royal prerogative of dishonesty?
The state can invoke its prerogative to defeat any legitimate claim against it by simply invoking its non suability.
Do all states or territories have the same blood alcohol limit for non probationary drivers?
No, DUI laws are set from state to state, but most are very similar to each other.
What is non culpable homicide?
Culpable homicide is the unlawful killing of a human being which does not amount to murder.
Is iodine mental or non mental?
mental
What is the opposite to mental?
Non-Mental
What is youth unrest?
Unrest can be defined as a restless mind or state of mental disturbance caused by the continued non-achievement of expectations of youth
What type of bond exists between a mental and a non-mental?
ionic
Is boron non-mental?
Yea.
Difference beween murder and culpable homicide?
Murder is the unlawful, intentional killing of another person. Homicide by culpable negligance is the killing of a person by committing an act of negligance or careless act that if not committed would not have caused the victim to die.
How do you tell if it is an ionic compound?
Metal and Non-mental.
What does non community property mean?
A non-community property state is a separate property state.A non-community property state is a separate property state.A non-community property state is a separate property state.A non-community property state is a separate property state.
Should schizophrenics have their own laws and rules?
It is unclear what "their own laws" means. If it is saying that a unique set legal jurisprudence should apply to individuals solely because they are schizophrenic, there is almost no legal scholar that asserts such a thing. However, if by "their own laws", the question intends to question if the standards for punishment should be altered on account of schizophrenia, almost every Western System of Law does have a unique system of punishment for those who are mentally deficient or morally non-culpable. Many schizophrenics cannot differentiate the real from the fantastic and may believe they are forcibly grabbing a doll when they are actually throttling a child. In this case both mental deficiency comes into the picture (the schizophrenic's mind is at issue) and he is morally non-culpable since forcibly grabbing a doll is no crime. There are other cases of schizophrenia along the "Dr. Jekyll-Mr. Hyde" variant of dual personalities. Western courts are divided as to whether schizophrenics with this condition should receive special treatment. Some hold that since both "personalities" are in the same body and both are entirely cognizant of their actions when they transpire, that person should be punished regardless of whether the personality that committed the offense is on trial. Others disagree, saying that only the personality that committed the offense is morally culpable and point to how sleep-walking crimes are similarly not morally culpable. It should be noted that being found not guilty due to a mental condition that precludes moral culpability does not result in release as is commonly believed. It results in mandatory transferal to a mental health facility to improve the mentally ill person.
Two major categories of mental illness?
Psychotic and non-psychotic
Non pecuniary loss?
non financial loss, e.g. loss in the form of pain and suffering or mental duress
