It belongs to the Celtic subdivision of Indoeuropean languages. It includes Irish, Scottish and Manx Gaelic, all separate languages. Welsh, Breton and Cornish belong to the other branch of Celtic.
Yes, linguists have traced the English language back to its roots in the Proto-Indo-European language, which is believed to have been spoken around 4500 BC. English is part of the Indo-European language family, which also includes languages like Spanish, French, and Hindi.
No, Semitic languages are not part of the Indo-European language family. Semitic languages belong to a separate language family that includes languages such as Arabic, Hebrew, and Amharic.
One of the most distinguishing features of the Khosian language family is that it's languages make use of 'click consonant' for the letters c, q, and x. These 'clicks' can only be heard in these languages along with the bantu language family (of which Xhosa, the native language of Nelson Mandela, is included)
Research done in India is generally very inaccurate. It is true in any developing world. All the Indian languages have their origin in Sanskrit, a IndoEuropean language. Kannada is a more complete and classical language unlike Tamil which lacks even basic letters like 'ha' in its alphabet. Telugu script has its origin in Kannada. So do Konkani and Tulu languages.
If you mean bastard, as in fatherless; then no... it is in the family language of the germanic - indoeuropean - japhetic trace of languages from the tower of babel. But it is becoming a "bastard" language in the sense that surely a great number of more than half of the people who speak it speak it as a second language, mainly pressured by business, colonization and cultural pressure.
It belongs to the Celtic subdivision of Indoeuropean languages. It includes Irish, Scottish and Manx Gaelic, all separate languages. Welsh, Breton and Cornish belong to the other branch of Celtic.
Yes, linguists have traced the English language back to its roots in the Proto-Indo-European language, which is believed to have been spoken around 4500 BC. English is part of the Indo-European language family, which also includes languages like Spanish, French, and Hindi.
No, Semitic languages are not part of the Indo-European language family. Semitic languages belong to a separate language family that includes languages such as Arabic, Hebrew, and Amharic.
The Italic family, which includes Latin, Spanish, French, Italian, Portuguese, Romanian, Catalan, Occitan, Galician, Ladino, Romansch, and several others.
Languages are organsed into families. Languages in a family are related through descent from a common ancestral language or parental language, called the proto-language of that family.
Most European languages belong to the Indo-European language family.
One of the most distinguishing features of the Khosian language family is that it's languages make use of 'click consonant' for the letters c, q, and x. These 'clicks' can only be heard in these languages along with the bantu language family (of which Xhosa, the native language of Nelson Mandela, is included)
Research done in India is generally very inaccurate. It is true in any developing world. All the Indian languages have their origin in Sanskrit, a IndoEuropean language. Kannada is a more complete and classical language unlike Tamil which lacks even basic letters like 'ha' in its alphabet. Telugu script has its origin in Kannada. So do Konkani and Tulu languages.
Yes, the Uralic language family, which includes languages like Finnish and Hungarian, is not directly related to the Indo-European language family, which includes languages like English and Spanish.
It belongs to the Indo-European family of languages.
The most spoken language of the bantu family of languages spoken in Africa is...UMBUNDU