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What were two reasons used to explain why appeasement was logical at that time?
Wiki User
∙ 10y ago
cause that supported the HITLER, because all Germant wanted is to oppose the treaty of versailles and be like nothing happened so they wouldnt lost anything my making up the war(s).
Wiki User
∙ 10y ago
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Why was appeasement a logical strategy?
England and France did not wish to engage Germany in another war. Letting Germany take over a country or two seemed reasonable at the time to the leaders of France and Britain.
Do you agree with appeasement?
The appeasement policy would not have worked. It would have worked if Hitler was okay with letting other people control the country, but like all humans they wanted to do what they wanted to do. The appeasement policy went wrong when Britain tried to stop the Germany by paying it to not take over any more countries. Germany had believed that it was there time to rule the world and they were using the appeasement policy to strengthen its army. So it is like a bully (Germany) is being paid to no beat up a child (Britain and other countries).
What is the appeasement policy?
Appeasement is a policy of accepting the imposed conditions of an aggressor in lieu of armed resistance, usually at the sacrifice of principles. Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Appeasement_policy
Why did kristallnacht turn british people away from appeasement?
I don't think the assumption made in the question is accurate. Following the Kristallnacht the British government eased some of the restrictions on allowing refugees from Nazi Germany to enter the U.K. This was done for humanitarian reasons and in response to pressure from public opinion. This is not the same thing as saying that people 'turned away' from appeasement. Generally, historians see the Nazi seizure, in March 1939, of the 'rump' of Czechoslovakia left after the annexation of the Sudetenland as the key turning-point in attitudes towards appeasement. Within two weeks Neville Chamberlain gave Poland a verbal guarantee of assistance if it was attacked by Germany (though the actual treaty with Poland was not worked out till later); and in April 1939 the British parliament passed legislation for the reintroduction of conscription (compulsory military service). This was the first time that Britain introduced conscription in peace time.
What was the policy of appeasement and did it work?
There are many reasons which do justify appeasement and also many reasons that don't justify appeasement. Firstly, appeasement was justified because many military experts in Britain calculated that there would be over 1 million deaths in the first 60 days of war if war broke out in September 1938. This meant that many people wanted to have a negotiated peace because Britain was not ready for war. Furthermore, appeasement was justified because Britain wanted to play for time so she could rearm and massively increase the number of men in the army (through conscription) and the number of RAF planes. This also links to the calculations made by the military experts as Britain knew that if they did not rearm then many civilians would die in air raids. Instead, politicians knew that buying time would decrease that risk. However, appeasement was not justified because only 7% of the British population believed that Hitler would not demand to take over any other European countries. This meant that 93% of the population thought Hitler would take land that was not rightfully German which would inevitably result in war. Furthermore, appeasement was not justified because giving in to Hitler's demands at the Munich Conference meant that Hitler would have more confidence and perhaps take a gamble to demand more land in the future. This also links to the fact that Germany would become much stronger through appeasement which would make it much harder to defeat a stronger Germany in the future. In my overall opinion, I don't think appeasement was justified because it gave Hitler the confidence to demand more land. This was evident when Hitler demanded the Polish Corridor and Danzig in August 1939, which eventually resulted in war. The public opinion in Britain also was a reason to abandon appeasement because many thought Hitler would demand further, which did happen, and this links to the point I said about Hitler growing more confident and stronger. However, the possible death toll in the first 60 days of a war was incredibly high if Britain did not play for time and rearm.
What were reasons used to explain why appeasement was logical at that time?
cause that supported the HITLER, because all Germant wanted is to oppose the treaty of versailles and be like nothing happened so they wouldnt lost anything my making up the war(s).
Why was appeasement a logical strategy?
England and France did not wish to engage Germany in another war. Letting Germany take over a country or two seemed reasonable at the time to the leaders of France and Britain.
Explain the Japanese's warlike acts that lead to war?
It was the 1938 Agreement that gave the Sudetenland of Czechoslovakia to Germany. Called an act of appeasement it was supposed to insure "peace in our time".
How old is the creator?
If there is a creator, he (or she...) is of no age. If he has created time, he must have existed before time. If he has any age, he could not have created time. This is for logical reasons. If he has created logic, well, that's another question...
Why did the Western democracies adopt a policy of appeasement in response to Hitler's aggression?
there was three reasons 1- Britain did not want to go to war 2- They were buying time to build their army 3- Some agreed that the treaty of Versailles was harsh
Was appeasement good for Britain?
It may have bought them some time, but the war wasn't prevented.
Where in Germany was the appeasement argreement signed?
'Peace in our Time' said Chamberlain when he returned from Munich.
Why did the Greeks create Zeus?
Because of the same reasons other religons are created. To base economic growth, hope, comfort etc. It helped to explain natural events that local science at the time couldn't explain. At the time, it made sense
What happened after the appeasement of Germany?
By March 1939 it was obvious that the policy of appeasement had failed. Britain introduced compulsory military service (for the first time ever in peace time) and gave a guarantee to Poland. When Germany invaded Poland in September 1939 Britain and France declared war on Germany ...
When did No Time To Explain happen?
No Time To Explain happened in 2011.
What is a logical sequence dealing with time?
Chronological Order
Did chamberlain met hitlar in 1938?
Yes he did. It was at Munich with his appeasement policy. On his return, he made his 'peace in our time' speech.
