answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

It is possible but unlikely. Shakespeare and de Vere were of totally different social classes and would not have mixed socially. De Vere was an ardent theatre fan and supported two companies (Oxford's Men and the Children of Paul's) as well as the playwright John Lyly in the 1580s before Shakespeare started his career. It is possible that the young Shakespeare may have been connected with the Oxford Company as a hired man, but the patrons of theatre companies had nothing to do with the day-to-day running of the company and so would likely never have had any contact with the hirelings, if indeed Shakespeare was one of them. After about 1590, as Shakespeare's star began to rise, de Vere's steadily diminished. He became a peripheral figure, crippled by crushing debt and ill health. He may have continued his interest in the theatre by attending performances by the Lord Chamberlain's Men, rivals to his own companies, and may have interacted with the actors at such a performance, including Shakespeare. But there is no evidence at all that such an event took place, and because of the social differences involved, it is very unlikely.

User Avatar

Wiki User

6y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Did Shakespeare have any interaction with Edward De Vere?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Continue Learning about Performing Arts

What is the family tree for edward de vere anne Boleyn and queen elizibeth nad Shakespeare?

Anne Boleyn was Queen Elizabeth's mother. Neither de Vere or Shakespeare had any relation to either woman or to each other.


How is Sir Walter Raleigh and William Shakespeare connected?

What most people are still debating to this day, is the fact of who truly wrote Shakespeare's plays, and this does tie William Shakespeare to Queen Elizabeth the First. As most people know, Queen Elizabeth's mother was Anne Boleyn, and Anne Boleyn was wrongly accused of adultery. Before her execution for that wrong mistake, Anne gave birth to Elizabeth (who will become Queen Elizabeth the First). When Elizabeth was a teenager around 1548 or 1549, she was living with in the home of Catherine Parr, who was the last wife of Henry VIII. Catherine had remarried and there was something involving Catherine Parr's husband or another man. Some sort of impropriety. No one seems to know what really had happened, but Elizabeth was forced to leave the house afterward. This information leads people to assume that Elizabeth had become pregnant. There is also no proof of Edward de Vere and Elizabeth, or why they were so close. Most people to this day still think they were lovers. They were 17 years apart, and women at that time had kids really young. The reason most people think that Edward de Vere wrote William Shakespeare's plays is mainly because William Shakespeare had a very simple life, and often stayed at his home while Edward de Vere had a very nomadic lifestyle, traveling from place to place. William Shakespeare was a merchant. He had a grammar-school education and wasn't well traveled as we know. Yet why would Edward de Vere write those plays and keep it a secret?? If Edward de Vere wrote all of those plays, yet he was Elizabeth's son, he couldn't put his name on any of his works. The royals believed that play-writing was beneath them. If Edward de Vere was Queen Elizabeth's son, it would have been more important to hide his authorship. She wouldn't have wanted him to attract attention. It might have exposed their relationship. It is known that Edward de Vere was a great favorite of Queen Elizabeth's. His father died when he was really young, and he was raised by one of her top advisers. When Edward de Vere was an adult, Elizabeth gave him an allowance of a thousand pounds a year, which can equal to around $700,000 dollars now. Most people believe that Elizabeth gave that money to Edward de Vere because she did not want him to make it known to the public that he was the author of the plays, and they paid William Shakespeare to take credit for the plays.


Did William Shakespeare have a mentor or any one who helped make him who he was?

Nobody is credited for being Shakespeare's mentor. Some people have guessed that his mentor may have been George Peele and that Shakespeare assisted Peele with Edward I.


WHo are the other people who could have written Shakespeare's plays?

Because there is no actual evidence that anyone apart from Shakespeare wrote his plays, the field is pretty well open for wild speculation. There are dozens of people who have been proposed as the author of Shakespeare but the front runners are Edward de Vere the Earl of Oxford, Christopher Marlowe and Francis Bacon. Since neither de Vere or Bacon showed any aptitude for poetic writing, and both de Vere and Marlowe were demonstrably dead when most of Shakespeare's plays were being written, these are pretty sketchy suggestions indeed.


What connections did Shakespeare have with Elizabeth the first?

The author Paul Streitz, director of the Oxford Institute, theorizes that William Shakespeare was the pen name of Edward de Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford in the book "Oxford, Son of Queen Elizabeth I." His theory is as follows: After the death of her father, 12 year old Elizabeth lived in the court of her step-mother, Katherine Parr. Thomas Seymour proposed to Elizabeth, but she rejected him, so he instead married Parr. When Parr was 6 months pregnant, she and Seymour moved to Sudeley Castle, leaving the now 14 year old Elizabeth in seclusion. History records Elizabeth fell ill that year, 1548, but no mention of what illness. Apparently Streitz found some historical documentation from a midwife, brought to Cheshunt (where Elizabeth was in seclusion) to care for a 'fair young lady' who'd given birth. Streitz further claims to have found testimony of "gross impropriety" taken by Seymour with his step-daughter, Elizabeth. Katherine Parr died in childbed, and the child was supposedly raised by John de Vere, 16th Earl of Oxford. Streitz also points out that later, in 1571, the line of succession was changed by Elizabeth I's councellor William Cecil to name that child, named Edward de Vere, as the heir to her throne. If Streitz is correct, that would mean the true royal family of England would in fact be the descendants of William Shakespeare via the Tudor line. Of course, this theory, lacking as it does any credible evidence to support it, is either ignored or dismissed fairly summarily by almost all scholars. Christopher Paul, himself a believer in the theory that de Vere wrote Shakespeare's works, has written a detailed article outlining the flaws in Streitz's book. Most scholars would take the view that even if Edward de Vere happened to be Elizabeth's son (or as Streitz would have us believe, both her son and paramour!), it is no support for the idea that de Vere wrote Shakespeare's works, which most of them reject. ANSWER: The above is like the English version of America's many conspiracy theories. People love to read about them but there is no evidence whatsoever. The De Vere wrote Shakespeare theory has less evidence than Roswell aliens. So the short answer is that William Shakespeare of Stratford-Upon-Avon who's name appears on the works of William Shakespeare is NOT related to Elizabeth I. She was however his patron and he performed his plays for her at court.

Related questions

What is the family tree for edward de vere anne Boleyn and queen elizibeth nad Shakespeare?

Anne Boleyn was Queen Elizabeth's mother. Neither de Vere or Shakespeare had any relation to either woman or to each other.


Who ghost-wrote for the Bard?

The real author behind Shakespeare's plays and poems has been subject to a controversy dating back about 150 years. The so-called "Anti-Stratfordians" maintain that Shakespeare, with his provincial background (from Stratford-upon-Avon) could not possibly have collected sufficient knowledge and education to be accountable for his body of work. The most popular candidates as the Bard's ghostwriters are Francis Bacon (1561-1626) and Edward de Vere, the 17th Earl of Oxford (1550-1604); the latter being favored by some on the grounds of Shakespeare's complete lack of productivity during the last decade of his life until 1616.


How is Sir Walter Raleigh and William Shakespeare connected?

What most people are still debating to this day, is the fact of who truly wrote Shakespeare's plays, and this does tie William Shakespeare to Queen Elizabeth the First. As most people know, Queen Elizabeth's mother was Anne Boleyn, and Anne Boleyn was wrongly accused of adultery. Before her execution for that wrong mistake, Anne gave birth to Elizabeth (who will become Queen Elizabeth the First). When Elizabeth was a teenager around 1548 or 1549, she was living with in the home of Catherine Parr, who was the last wife of Henry VIII. Catherine had remarried and there was something involving Catherine Parr's husband or another man. Some sort of impropriety. No one seems to know what really had happened, but Elizabeth was forced to leave the house afterward. This information leads people to assume that Elizabeth had become pregnant. There is also no proof of Edward de Vere and Elizabeth, or why they were so close. Most people to this day still think they were lovers. They were 17 years apart, and women at that time had kids really young. The reason most people think that Edward de Vere wrote William Shakespeare's plays is mainly because William Shakespeare had a very simple life, and often stayed at his home while Edward de Vere had a very nomadic lifestyle, traveling from place to place. William Shakespeare was a merchant. He had a grammar-school education and wasn't well traveled as we know. Yet why would Edward de Vere write those plays and keep it a secret?? If Edward de Vere wrote all of those plays, yet he was Elizabeth's son, he couldn't put his name on any of his works. The royals believed that play-writing was beneath them. If Edward de Vere was Queen Elizabeth's son, it would have been more important to hide his authorship. She wouldn't have wanted him to attract attention. It might have exposed their relationship. It is known that Edward de Vere was a great favorite of Queen Elizabeth's. His father died when he was really young, and he was raised by one of her top advisers. When Edward de Vere was an adult, Elizabeth gave him an allowance of a thousand pounds a year, which can equal to around $700,000 dollars now. Most people believe that Elizabeth gave that money to Edward de Vere because she did not want him to make it known to the public that he was the author of the plays, and they paid William Shakespeare to take credit for the plays.


Which two writers wrote a shakespeare play?

Take your pick of the following:Shakespeare and Fletcher (The Two Noble Kinsmen, Henry VIII, Cardenio)Shakespeare and Wilkins (Pericles)Shakespeare and Middleton (Timon of Athens, some folks think)Shakespeare and Peele (possibly Edward I, or Edward III, or Titus Andronicus. Nobody is sure about this one)In any event, Shakespeare was at least one of the writers of all the Shakespeare plays.


Did William Shakespeare have a mentor or any one who helped make him who he was?

Nobody is credited for being Shakespeare's mentor. Some people have guessed that his mentor may have been George Peele and that Shakespeare assisted Peele with Edward I.


WHo are the other people who could have written Shakespeare's plays?

Because there is no actual evidence that anyone apart from Shakespeare wrote his plays, the field is pretty well open for wild speculation. There are dozens of people who have been proposed as the author of Shakespeare but the front runners are Edward de Vere the Earl of Oxford, Christopher Marlowe and Francis Bacon. Since neither de Vere or Bacon showed any aptitude for poetic writing, and both de Vere and Marlowe were demonstrably dead when most of Shakespeare's plays were being written, these are pretty sketchy suggestions indeed.


What connections did Shakespeare have with Elizabeth the first?

The author Paul Streitz, director of the Oxford Institute, theorizes that William Shakespeare was the pen name of Edward de Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford in the book "Oxford, Son of Queen Elizabeth I." His theory is as follows: After the death of her father, 12 year old Elizabeth lived in the court of her step-mother, Katherine Parr. Thomas Seymour proposed to Elizabeth, but she rejected him, so he instead married Parr. When Parr was 6 months pregnant, she and Seymour moved to Sudeley Castle, leaving the now 14 year old Elizabeth in seclusion. History records Elizabeth fell ill that year, 1548, but no mention of what illness. Apparently Streitz found some historical documentation from a midwife, brought to Cheshunt (where Elizabeth was in seclusion) to care for a 'fair young lady' who'd given birth. Streitz further claims to have found testimony of "gross impropriety" taken by Seymour with his step-daughter, Elizabeth. Katherine Parr died in childbed, and the child was supposedly raised by John de Vere, 16th Earl of Oxford. Streitz also points out that later, in 1571, the line of succession was changed by Elizabeth I's councellor William Cecil to name that child, named Edward de Vere, as the heir to her throne. If Streitz is correct, that would mean the true royal family of England would in fact be the descendants of William Shakespeare via the Tudor line. Of course, this theory, lacking as it does any credible evidence to support it, is either ignored or dismissed fairly summarily by almost all scholars. Christopher Paul, himself a believer in the theory that de Vere wrote Shakespeare's works, has written a detailed article outlining the flaws in Streitz's book. Most scholars would take the view that even if Edward de Vere happened to be Elizabeth's son (or as Streitz would have us believe, both her son and paramour!), it is no support for the idea that de Vere wrote Shakespeare's works, which most of them reject. ANSWER: The above is like the English version of America's many conspiracy theories. People love to read about them but there is no evidence whatsoever. The De Vere wrote Shakespeare theory has less evidence than Roswell aliens. So the short answer is that William Shakespeare of Stratford-Upon-Avon who's name appears on the works of William Shakespeare is NOT related to Elizabeth I. She was however his patron and he performed his plays for her at court.


Arguments that shakespeare did not write his plays and poems?

The main argument that Shakespeare could not have written the plays is that only a well educated member of the aristocracy would have had the time or the knowledge to write such fine literature. This is the argument used in favour of both Edward de Vere and Francis Bacon. The same argument can be used to show that the Beatles did not write their own music (in fact this argument was used during the early 1960's); that Van Gogh never did any painting; and that Haydn was unable to compose a symphony. (All of these people had as little specialist education as Shakespeare had). The argument also shows that another great playwright of the Elizabethan era - Ben Jonson - couldn't have written his plays either. (Despite his reputation as an intellectual, Jonson was as uneducated as Shakespeare). William Shakespeare wrote Shakespeare's plays - nobody else could have.


Did edward de vere write William Shakespeare plays?

Most people think not.That a man called William Shakespeare was born and died in Stratford-upon-Avon, that he was involved in some manner with members of the playing company, The Lord Chamberlain's Men, later the King's Men, is not disputed. In 1623 the first folio of Shakespeare's works was published, with dedicatory letters allegedly written by John Hemminges and William Condell, two associates of the King's Men, identifying "Shakespeare" as the author.Since this question is about Edward de Vere, however, and not about the conventional author (about whom much can be read elsewhere), let us consider some of the reasons why many persons have concluded that the orthodox account is erroneous and that de Vere was in fact the real author.Perhaps the foremost reason is that so many of de Vere's known experiences seem uncannily reflected in the plays and poems published under the name "Shakespeare." Space does not permit a complete analysis, but these include such facts as that de Vere was lamed, and the author of the Sonnets speaks of himself as lame; de Vere was raised in the household of William Cecil Lord Burghley, after his father died when he was 12 years of age. Cecil is thought by many scholars to be the historical prototype for the character of Polonius in Hamlet. De Vere was unhappily married to the daughter of his legal guardian Anne Cecil, and advocates of the Oxfordian view, such as Supreme Court Justice John Paul Stevens, argue that this unfortunate liaison is mirrored in Hamlet's conflicted relations with Ophelia.


Who really wrote Shakespeares plays?

Most scholars would say: the two most likely authors of Shakespeare's plays are William Shakespeare and William Shakespeare. However some people claim in the face of all the evidence that the plays were written by someone other than Shakespeare, and the most popular candidate for this is Edward de Vere, Earl of Oxford. (Christopher Marlowe and Sir Francis Bacon have also been mentioned)


Which english monarch did shakespeare not immortalize in verse?

Shakespeare only wrote about the following English monarchs: John, Richard II, Henry IV, Henry V, Henry VI, Edward IV, Edward V, Richard III, Henry VII and Henry VIII. Possibly also Edward III. He did not write about any others, and it is an open question whether making someone a character in a play constitutes "immortalizing in verse".


Who wrote William Shakespeare's plays?

William Shakespeare did. The chances that he did not contribute at least something to all of the plays people attribute to him are infinitesimally small. The evidence is quite clear that: 1. William Shakespeare was a real person who was born and died in Stratford. 2. William Shakespeare from Stratford was a member of the playing company called The Lord Chamberlain's Men and the King's Men and was a close friend with the other members. 3. The plays which were published with Shakespeare's name on them were exclusively associated with the Lord Chamberlain's/ King's Men for as long as he was a member of that company. 4. William Shakespeare was depicted as a writer by those who knew him best within a couple of years of his death. 5. There is no contemporary record of any other person called William Shakespeare who could possibly be mistaken for Shakespeare the writer. 6. Nobody in the history of the world has used the name of a well-known living person as a nom de plume. Some think that Edward de Vere the 17th Earl of Oxford wrote the plays but there is no good reason to think he did and a number of good reasons to think he didn't.