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Nothing. Some people think that he wrote the play to please the king because it is about Scotland, has a flattering reference to James's ancestor Banquo and deals with witches, which were one of the king's pet subjects. However, all of these things were part of the story before Shakespeare got hold of it, in his source material, Holinshed's Chronicles. Holinshed has this to say about the witches and Banquo's decendants:
"when suddenlie in the middest of a laund, there met them thrée women in strange and wild apparell, resembling creatures of elder world, whome when they attentiuelie beheld, woondering much at the sight, the first of them spake and said; "All haile Makbeth, thane of Glammis" (for he had latelie entered into that dignitie and office by the death of his father Sinell.) The second of them said; "Haile Makbeth thane of Cawder." But the third said; "All haile Makbeth that héerafter shalt be king of Scotland." Then Banquho; "What manner of women (saith he) are you, that séeme so little fauourable vnto me, whereas to my fellow heere, besides high offices, ye assigne also the kingdome, appointing foorth nothing for me at all?" "Yes (saith the first of them) we promise greater benefits vnto thée, than vnto him, for he shall reigne in déed, but with an vnluckie end: neither shall he leaue anie issue behind him to succéed in his place, where contrarilie thou in déed shalt not reigne at all, but of thée those shall be borne which shall gouerne the Scotish kingdome by long order of continuall descent."
Wiki User
∙ 9y ago
Wiki User
∙ 7y agoThe only way we can speculate on this question, and any idea that Shakespeare was trying to please the king with this play is pure speculation resting on no evidence whatsoever, is to compare the play with the account in Shakespeare's source, Holinshed's Chronicles of England, Scotland and Ireland, Volume 5. If some part of the story is in Holinshed, Shakespeare did not insert it to please the king. If it is not in Holinshed, Shakespeare may have changed the story to please the king, but he may also have changed the story to improve the play. So, first of all, Shakespeare did not add the witches into the story to please the king. The witches and all of their predictions are in Holinshed. Shakespeare did not add the idea that Fleance was the ancestor of the Stuart family. The Stuart family became the house of the rulers of Scotland when one of them married Marjorie Bruce, daughter of King Robert the Bruce, and this story is told in Holinshed also. Shakespeare did change the character of Banquo who in Holinshed was Macbeth's partner in the murder of Duncan, but although possibly whitewashing Banquo may have been because Banquo was King James's ancestor supposedly, it makes more sense that Shakespeare made the change for dramatic reasons, making Macbeth's murder of Banquo more irrational and culpable, and also allowing the role of the assistant murderer to go to Lady Macbeth instead of Banquo.
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Where did shakespeare get the idea for macbeth?
Macbeth is based on a real Scottish King. Shakespeare got the idea for his play Macbeth from reading a book called Holinshed's Chronicles, which contains the plot pretty much as Shakespeare wrote it. Shakespeare did not change it to try and flatter King James, who was the King at the time this play was performed. The story was like that in Holinshed, because Holinshed's sources had changed it to flatter King James's ancestors.
What English king did Shakespeare intend to honor by writing Macbeth?
According to kermode, what reason does Macbeth provide for killing duncan
What is the relationship of King James I to Shakespeare?
King James I became the patron of the Lord Chamberlain's men when he bacame king, and the company was renamed the King's Men. That made all of the actors the king's servants, including Shakespeare. Some people think Shakespeare wrote Macbeth in order to win the king's approval, although the story was written that way in his sources anyway. There is no record that Macbeth was played at court, and it is unlikely that Macbeth was the King's favourite play, as he appears to have preferred comedies. (He expressly asked for The Merchant of Venice for Shrove Tuesday in 1606--this really was one of his favourite plays) In any event, Shakespeare would not have had any personal relationship with the king, as kings and players did not mix socially.
How was the play Macbeth linked to James to first?
King James was obsessed with witches, and he even wrote a book about them, so Shakespeare added them to the play Also, it was believed that king James was a descendant of Banquo, so Shakespeare changed history so that Banquo did not assist in the murder of Duncan
What was Macbeths role in Macbeth?
Macbeth is King Duncan's cousin as well as a general of the king. Later into the play, he becomes king.
Why were there witches in Macbeth?
Macbeth was written and performed for King James. Shakespeare wanted to please the king, so he wrote a fairly short play (James liked short plays). King James himself had written a book on witches and how to detect them. For this, Shakespeare decided to add a supernatural twist to his play, as to please the king. Basically the King wrote a book about witches so Shakespeare thought putting witches in his play would please the king. Source: http://home.flash.net/~manniac/macb.htm
Who does the eighth ruler portrayed by the apparitions represent in Macbeth?
The eighth ruler portrayed by the apparitions in Macbeth represents King James I of England, who was also King James VI of Scotland. The play Macbeth was written by Shakespeare to please and flatter King James I, who had a keen interest in witchcraft and the supernatural.
Where did shakespeare get the idea for macbeth?
Macbeth is based on a real Scottish King. Shakespeare got the idea for his play Macbeth from reading a book called Holinshed's Chronicles, which contains the plot pretty much as Shakespeare wrote it. Shakespeare did not change it to try and flatter King James, who was the King at the time this play was performed. The story was like that in Holinshed, because Holinshed's sources had changed it to flatter King James's ancestors.
What English king did Shakespeare intend to honor by writing Macbeth?
According to kermode, what reason does Macbeth provide for killing duncan
What is the relationship of King James I to Shakespeare?
King James I became the patron of the Lord Chamberlain's men when he bacame king, and the company was renamed the King's Men. That made all of the actors the king's servants, including Shakespeare. Some people think Shakespeare wrote Macbeth in order to win the king's approval, although the story was written that way in his sources anyway. There is no record that Macbeth was played at court, and it is unlikely that Macbeth was the King's favourite play, as he appears to have preferred comedies. (He expressly asked for The Merchant of Venice for Shrove Tuesday in 1606--this really was one of his favourite plays) In any event, Shakespeare would not have had any personal relationship with the king, as kings and players did not mix socially.
Who is king Ducan?
He was the King of Scotland who was murdered by the thane Macbeth in Shakespeare's tragedy Macbeth.
How was the play Macbeth linked to James to first?
King James was obsessed with witches, and he even wrote a book about them, so Shakespeare added them to the play Also, it was believed that king James was a descendant of Banquo, so Shakespeare changed history so that Banquo did not assist in the murder of Duncan
Who was Macbeth of Scotland?
In Scotland many years ago, there was a king named Macbeth. Wlliam Shakespeare's Macbeth was named after this great king. unlike in Shakespeare's play, Macbeth was a fantastic legendery King, and not a murderous man, like in the play
What is an example for a tragic hero?
Macbeth in Shakespeare's The Tragedy of Macbeth Lear in Shakespeare's King Lear Hamlet in Shakespeare's Hamlet Brutus in Shakespeare's Julius Caesar
It is believed that Shakespeare wrote Macbeth with what king in mind And why?
Shakespeare wrote Macbeth with King James I in mind. King James I had a fascination with the supernatural, which is reflected in the witches and their prophecies in the play. Additionally, King James I was a Scotsman interested in his own ancestry, which is reflected in the play's setting in Scotland and themes of kingship and loyalty.
How is the play Macbeth by William Shakespeare and King James related?
Shakespeare's play "Macbeth" was likely written to appeal to King James I, who had a keen interest in witchcraft and supernatural elements. The play includes themes of kingship and regicide, which would have resonated with King James because he believed in the divine right of kings. Overall, the play can be seen as a way for Shakespeare to flatter and connect with King James and his interests.
Why did Shakespeare make mmacbeth a villen?
I assume you meant "Why did Shakespeare make Macbeth a villan?" Well, what could the storyline have been if he wasn't a villan? Shakespeare's Macbeth was based on the real Macbeth. He murdered his king, Duncan, and became king. I guess that means that the real Macbeth was a villan, and so Shakespeare only kept it that way, showing it wasn't Shakespeare that made his character of Macbeth a villan.
